what is one of the primary reasons given for why there are very few fossils from the earliest (pre-ediacaran fauna) animals?

Answers

Answer 1

The first animals had soft bodies and lacked the necessary body parts to be mineralized into fossils.

From the Ediacaran through the Cambrian, a series of stunning finds, including embryos, have recently brought new life to the fossil record of the earliest animals. However, numerous questions, not the least of which is the date and interpretation of the fossils, are still up for debate.

Before making claims regarding the affinities of the earliest fossils, it is especially important to carefully investigate characteristics of their taphonomy.

The fossil record of at least primitive organisms, such as sponges and maybe cnidarians, can now be extended to a time period that occurred substantially earlier than the Cambrian.

The Cambrian explosion itself still appears to mark the appearance of the bilaterians, and numerous additional fossil discoveries in recent years have significantly increased our knowledge of how the three main bilaterian clades originated.

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Explain what may happen to the other organisms if disease were to kill off one of the 2nd level carnivores in your food web. Which organisms would increase in population? Why? Which organisms would decrease in population? Why?​

Answers

Answer: If disease were to kill off one of the second level carnivores in a food web, the other organisms in the web would be affected in a number of ways.

One possible outcome is that the population of the organisms that the second level carnivore ate would increase. This is because there would be fewer predators to hunt and eat them, so they would have more resources (such as food and space) available to them.

On the other hand, the population of the organisms that the second level carnivore depended on for food would decrease. This is because the second level carnivore would no longer be there to hunt and eat them, so they would have fewer resources available to them.

Additionally, the loss of a second level carnivore could have ripple effects throughout the food web. For example, the organisms that ate the second level carnivore (such as third level carnivores) may also decrease in population, as they would have fewer prey to hunt and eat. This, in turn, could lead to further population changes in the organisms that those predators ate, and so on.

Overall, the loss of a second level carnivore in a food web could lead to both increases and decreases in the populations of other organisms, depending on their relationship to the carnivore. It is difficult to predict exactly how the populations of different organisms would be affected without further information about the specific food web and the organisms involved.

Place the steps for the formation of the enzyme pepsinogen in the correct order.

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The steps for the formation of the enzyme pepsinogen in the correct order is as 1, 4, 2, 3.

Pepsinogen is a chemical that is created by the cells that exist in the stomach. During digestion, pepsinogen is converted into pepsin by the acid in the stomach, and pepsin is responsible for breaking down the proteins in food. The formation steps are as;

Step 1: The DNA strands unwind, and  RNA polymerase binds to the template strand.

Step 2: The synthesis of mRNA begins. The amino acids assemble to form peptide.

Step 3: The mRNA undergoes intron splicing and exits the nucleus.

Step 4: The tRNA moves through mRNA with the activated amino acids attached to it.

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The auditory sensory axons of the branch of cranial nerve number terminate in the cochlear nucleus within the brainstem.a. True
b. False

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The auditory sensory axons of the branch of cranial nerve number terminate in the cochlear nucleus within the brainstem. True

The vestibular nerve receives input from the vestibular ganglion, which is connected to the utricle, saccule, and crista ampullaris, while the cochlear nerve receives auditory inputs via the spiral ganglion in the petrous region of the temporal bone. Moving inward, the internal acoustic meatus is the entrance point for the vestibular and cochlear divisions into the skull, where they emerge into the region between the medulla and pons. The four vestibular nuclei are placed in the pons and medulla, while the cochlear nuclei are housed in the inferior cerebellar nuclei. There are several different etiologies that can result in harm, including brain stem infarcts, tumors (such as acoustic neuromas or vestibular schwannomas) and trauma.The dorsal and ventral cochlear nuclei are the two main divisions of the cochlear nucleus, and the cochlear nerve enters the brain stem at the pontomedullary junction (Fig. 122). The trapezoid body, which contains fibers intended for the bilateral superior olivary nuclei in the brain stem, is where the most significant outflow occurs.

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The image below shows a light
receptor cell. What is A?
Enter your answer
A
B

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Answer:

a is a

Explanation:

The image below shows a light receptor cell. The A part is outer segment containing rhodopsin.

What are receptor cells?

A distinct class of proteins called receptors work by attaching to a particular ligand molecule. The receptor can change conformation when a ligand binds to it, sending a signal into the cell. In some circumstances, the ligand will gradually diffuse away while the receptors stay attached to the cell's surface.

In a cell or on its surface, cellular receptors are proteins that take in signals. This chemical signal occurs when a protein-ligand interacts to a protein receptor during normal physiology. A cell can signal another cell or itself by releasing a chemical messenger called a ligand.

Therefore, the A part is the outer segment containing rhodopsin.

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during lumbosacral extension . a. l5 flexes as the sacral base extends b. both l5 and the sacral base extend c. l5 flexes as the sacral apex extends d. l5 extends as the sacral base flexes

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During lumbosacral extension, the l5 extends as the sacral base flexes. Hence, the answer is (d). The anterior rami of spinal nerves L4 to L5 and S1 to S4 make up the lumbosacral plexus.

The lumbar and sacral spinal nerve roots, which separate to produce the nerves feeding the lower leg, give rise to the lumbosacral plexus, a network of nerve fibers. There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves in the human body, and each pair is connected to a specific section of the vertebral column. These 31 pairs include the body's cervical (C1-C8), thoracic (T1-T12), lumbar (L1-L5), sacral (S1-S5), and coccygeal areas. The brachial and lumbosacral plexuses, from which the nerves of the upper and lower limbs, respectively, emerge, are formed when the appropriate spinal nerves in the cervical and lumbar regions meet.

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lorraine is 70 years old and complains that she cannot read or drive as well as she once could because her vision and especially her peripheral vision has decreased. after an eye exam, the doctor tells her that the fluid in her eyes cannot be drained properly causing too much pressure in the fluid in her eyes. what condition does lorraine have?

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Lorraine is suffering from glaucoma, due to which she complains she cannot read or drive as well as her vision, especially her peripheral vision, has decreased.

In glaucoma, fluid within the eyes cannot be adequately drained, causing too much pressure on eyesight. A series of eye disorders known as glaucoma harm the optic nerve. For clear vision, the optic nerve, which transmits visual data from the eye to the brain, is essential. High pressure in your eye is frequently associated with damage to the optic nerve. However, glaucoma can develop with normal eye pressure as well. Although there is currently no cure for glaucoma, if it is detected early on, vision loss can be avoided. The key to maintaining your vision health is to take action.

Hence, glaucoma is medical condition of abnormal fluid drainage of eyes.

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Timothy is planning to leave home to go on a long trip. His mother told him to take his cell phone in case of an emergency. What is one way that cell phone technology may not be beneficial in this situation?
Responses
A Timothy could use his cell phone to get directions.Timothy could use his cell phone to get directions.
B Timothy cannot get his car to start while at home.Timothy cannot get his car to start while at home.
C Timothy may not have cell phone service in some areas.Timothy may not have cell phone service in some areas.
D Timothy can use his cell phone to call for help.

Answers

One way that cell phone technology may not be beneficial in this situation is that Timothy may not have cell phone service in some areas. Timothy may not have cell phone service in some areas.

What is cell phone technology?

Cellular communication is facilitated by mobile technology. Over the last few years, mobile technology has advanced rapidly. Since the turn of the millennium, a standard mobile device has evolved from a simple two-way pager to a mobile phone, GPS navigation device, embedded web browser and instant messaging client, and handheld gaming console. Many experts believe that mobile computing and wireless networking are the future of computer technology.

Tablet computers are becoming increasingly popular for mobile computing. Tablets are available on 3G and 4G networks. Mobile technology has different meanings in different contexts, most notably mobile technology in information technology and mobile technology in basketball technology.

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which structure or component of the small intestine is important to antimicrobial defense?
A) salivary glands
B) stomach acid
C) Paneth cells
D) gall bladder
E) crevicular fluid

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(Option C.) Paneth cells are located in the small intestine and are important for antimicrobial defense. These cells produce antimicrobial peptides, also known as defensing, which can help protect the small intestine from invading microorganisms.

The Role of Paneth Cells in Antimicrobial Defense of the Small Intestine

Option C. Paneth cells

Paneth cells are located in the small intestine and are important for antimicrobial defense. They are specialized secretory cells that produce antimicrobial peptides, also known as defensing, which can help protect the small intestine from invading microorganisms. These defensing are then released and act as a barrier to any harmful bacteria that may enter the small intestine.

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how do glucagon and insulin differ? identify all of the statements below that are true. how do glucagon and insulin differ?identify all of the statements below that are true. insulin acts only on skeletal muscle cells, whereas glucagon acts only on liver cells. insulin is secreted from the pancreas, whereas glucagon is secreted from the liver. insulin causes some cells to take up glucose, whereas glucagon causes some cells to secrete glucose. insulin is secreted when the blood glucose level is low, whereas glucagon is secreted when the blood glucose level is high.

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Glucagon prevents blood glucose levels from falling too low, whereas insulin prevents levels from increasing too high. To manage blood sugar, the two hormones work counter to one another.

What distinguishes glucagon and insulin from each other?

When blood glucose levels exceed the set point, insulin is produced, whereas glucagon is released when levels drop below the set point.

How are glucagon and insulin similar?

Both glucagon and insulin normalize blood glucose levels, but they do so in different ways. The Islet cells in the pancreas secrete both substances. However, the beta islet cells release insulin, while the alpha islet cells release glucagon. Both hormones are produced by the pancreas.

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reactive oxygen intermediates and reactive nitrogen intermediates produced by phagocytic cells are effective in killing invading microorganisms. t or f

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Reactive oxygen intermediates and reactive nitrogen intermediates produced by phagocytic cells are effective in killing invading microorganisms. The above statement is true.

Reactive oxygen intermediates are byproducts of the typical metabolism of oxygen in a biological setting. ROS play a part in homeostasis and cell signaling. ROS are present in normal cells at low, stationary levels and are essential for their proper operation. In plants, ROS play a role in metabolic pathways that are connected to photoprotection and stress tolerance. However, because they oxidize and change some cellular components and prevent them from carrying out their natural roles, ROS have the potential to irreversibly harm DNA. This implies that the balance between ROS creation and disposal at the appropriate time and location determines whether they will serve as harmful, protective, or signaling components.

In other words, both unchecked ROS synthesis and ineffective ROS removal by the antioxidant system can result in oxygen toxicity. ROS levels can significantly rise in response to environmental stressors like UV or heat exposure. Cell structures may suffer considerable harm as a result of this. This is collectively referred to as oxidative stress. Plants' reactions to stress conditions, including as drought, salt, cold, pathogen defense, nutritional deficiencies, metal toxicity, and UV-B radiation, have a significant impact on the formation of ROS.

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Unlike signal transduction in many other sensory receptors, signal transduction in rods?a. results in hyperpolarization of the sensory cell.b. does not involve the participation of a G protein.c. takes place entirely in the plasma membrane.d. involves a second messenger.

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Unlike signal transduction in many other sensory receptors, signal transduction in rods results in hyperpolarization of the sensory cell.

The process by which a chemical or physical signal is transmitted through a cell as a series of molecular events, most commonly protein phosphorylation catalyzed by protein kinases, which ultimately results in a cellular response is known as signal transduction.

Signal transduction pathways use a network of enzymes that act on one another in specific ways to generate a precise and appropriate physiological response by the cell via a signaling cascade. The process by which a virus transfers genetic material from one bacterium to another is known as transduction. Bacteriophage viruses can infect bacterial cells and use them as hosts to replicate themselves.

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Which phrase describes foliated rocks?tend to break in halfgrains arranged randomlytend to split apart along bandsgrains arranged in increasing size.

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Metamorphic rocks which have distinct layers, textures, and patterns are known as foliated rocks.

Metamorphic rocks are what kind of rocks?

It is common to come across the metamorphic minerals feldspar, schist, gneiss, sandstone, and marble. vegetation and metamorphic rocks: Two metamorphic rock types with significant banding or foliation are granite gneiss or biotite schist.

What is a good example of metamorphic?

Atom by atom, the elements in the rock formation are partially or completely replaced to create new minerals in metamorphic rocks. Phyllite, soapstone, schist, quartzite, marble, and gneiss are examples of metamorphic rock types. There are parks containing specimens of metamorphic rocks.

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Cdk activity is regulated in several ways. Sort each of the following forms of Cdk into the active or inactive Cdk category. Items (5 items) (Drag and drop into the appropriate area below) Tloop in active site Cdk/cyclin bound to p27 Threonine in T loop phosphorylated Cdk bound to cyclin Cdk alone Categories Active Cdk Inactive Cdk Drag and drop here Drag and drop here

Answers

Cdk activity is organized in several ways namely:

Inactive Cyclin: T loop in active site, Cdk alone, Cdk/cyclin bound to p27Active Cyclin: Cdk bound to cyclin, Threonine in T loop phosphorylated

CD kinase is a subtype of kinase enzyme involved in the cell cycle, DNA and mRNA transcription. CDK triggers the phosphorylation of serine and threonine amino acid residues called serine kinases. Cyclin is a CDK activator that forms a CDK complex with the CDK catalytic subunit.

CDK regulation largely occurs through the control of cyclin production and degradation, as cyclin binding shifts the T-loop, exposing substrate-binding sites and aligning critical residues in the active site that prime the kinase to activate.

In resting cells, CDK4/6 and CDK2 are inactive. D-type cyclin levels are low due to a lack of mitogenic stimulus, limiting CDK4/6 activity. In addition, CDK 4 and 6 are bound by members of the INK4 family, forming binary complexes that lack kinase activity. The CDK2 complex is inhibited by the CIP/KIP proteins p21 and p27.

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Aphids can feed in the leafy treetops (or tree canopies). Ants are usually not abundant in the tree canopies unless aphids are also present. You introduce aphids to an area of the tree canopy and survey the abundance of ants over time. Finally, you take a tree and block the ants from the canopy. Then you spend three years counting the number and types of insects on the forest floor around this tree (tree A) and in the area around a tree in which ants are not blocked (tree B). You find that the area around tree A has 25% fewer ants and 40% more beetles than the area around tree B. These data support the hypothesis that: a. ecological interactions in the tree canopy always have a negative effect on forest floor communities. b. there is no relationship between ant abundance and beetle abundance. c. there is a negative relationship between ant abundance and beetle abundance. d. ecological interactions in the tree canopy have no effect on forest floor communities. e. Othere is a positive relationship between ant abundance and beetle abundance.

Answers

There is a negative relationship between ant abundance and beetle abundance.

A symbiotic relationship is an ecological relationship that exists between two species that live in close proximity to one another. Organisms in symbiotic relationships have evolved to take advantage of a unique niche provided by another organism. Relationships between organisms within or between overlapping niches can be classified into five types: competition, predation, commensalism, mutualism, and parasitism.

All organisms in an ecosystem are linked in some way. In reality, populations of different species interact in a complex web of relationships. Relationships between species in communities are important in natural selection because they help shape the evolution of the interacting species.

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Consider the following chemical reaction at equilibrium.


H2SO4(aq) Double headed arrow. 2H+(aq) + SO42–(aq)

The addition of which compound will cause a shift in equilibrium because of a common ion effect?

NaCl
KNO3
MgSO4
FeCl3

Answers

The addition of [tex]MgSO_{4}[/tex] will cause a shift in equilibrium because of a common ion effect.

What is common ion effect?

The shift in the equilibrium position on the addition of a substance that provides an ion in common with one of the ions already involved in the equilibrium.

It applies to weak acids, weak bases, and the solubility of salts when a common ion is added to the equilibrium reaction.

The addition of [tex]MgSO_{4}[/tex] will cause a shift in equilibrium because of a common ion effect.

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to which group does procyon a belong? group of answer choices white dwarf super giant giant main sequence

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Procyon is a member of the white dwarf subgroup.

The genus Procyon includes three species of nocturnal mammals that belong to the Procyonidae family and are commonly referred to as raccoons. The two less well-known members of the genus, the common raccoon (P. lotor), are frequently referred to as "the" raccoon because they are only found in the tropics and are less widespread.

The English word "raccoon" comes from the Algonquian word "aroughcoune," which means "one who scrapes with his hands." The Spanish-speaking colonists adopted the Nahuatl word for the animal, mapachtli, which roughly translates to "something which has hands," for their title, mapache.

Greek for "before the dog," the genus name Procyon also serves as the name of the star Procyon in the constellation Canis Minor.

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What is it called when both alleles are completely expressed because neither is dominant nor recessive?

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When a heterozygote expresses both alleles of a gene pair, this type of inheritance is known as codominance. As a result, the offspring's phenotype combines the phenotypes of its parents. The characteristic is therefore neither recessive nor dominant.

In terms of genetics, codominance is a sort of inheritance in which two distinct expressions (alleles) of the same gene result in distinct features in a person. It's not usually the case that one allele entirely dominates another. One allele may not always be dominant over another, resulting in a phenotype that falls between the two parents in certain people. Incomplete dominance is the name given to this inheritance pattern.

When neither trait is truly dominant over the other, incomplete dominance results. This implies that both features may manifest in the same areas, combining two distinct phenotypes. When a white and black dog has a gray pup, there has been incomplete dominance. Two other types of genetic inheritance are codominance and incomplete dominance. It basically means that no allele can prevent or stifle the production of the other allele through codominance.

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Which outcome could be expected in a family that carries an x-linked recessive trait?

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More males than the females will express the trait if the family has an x-linked recessive trait.

X-linked recessive inheritance refers to a genetic condition associated with mutations in genes on the X chromosome. A male with such a mutation is affected because he has only one X chromosome. A woman who has a mutation in the gene and a normal gene on her other X chromosome is usually unaffected.

Examples of X-linked recessive disorders are red-green blindness and hemophilia A, red-green blindness. Because the inheritance pattern of many X-linked diseases is clearly neither dominant nor recessive, some experts believe that these diseases should be considered X-linked rather than X-linked dominant or X-linked recessive. These are the outcomes in the family with x-linked recessive trait.

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1.4.7. how do you know if something is a fruit? function of fruit? how are all fruits divided (based on what characters)? what will disperse the fruit based on the fruit characteristics.

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According to their botanical origin, fruits and vegetables are divided into different categories. The flower of a plant produces a fruit, while the rest of the plant is classified as a vegetable. Fruits have seeds, whereas vegetables might have stems, leaves, and roots.

Vegetables are plant portions that are eaten as food by people and other animals. The original definition is still frequently used to refer to all edible plant material, including the flowers, fruits, stems, leaves, roots, and seeds, when applied to plants as a whole. A different definition of the phrase is frequently used arbitrarily, according to ethnic and culinary traditions. Foods made from some plants' fruits, flowers, nuts, and cereal grains may not be included, however savoury fruits like tomatoes and courgettes, floral foods like broccoli, and seeds like pulses are. Vegetables were first gathered in the wild by hunter-gatherers and then brought into cultivation in numerous locations around the world, most likely between the years 10,000 BC and 7,000 BC, when a new agricultural way of life emerged. Initially, only plants that grew nearby would have been farmed, but throughout time, trade brought exotic crops from other places to complement domestic varieties. The majority of vegetables are now grown wherever the climate allows, and crops can be grown in sheltered habitats in less ideal places. Veggies cultivated outside of China are available to customers because to international trade in agricultural goods. China is the world's greatest producer of vegetables.

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When examining the major macromolecules in the cell, a student isolates two molecule types that are directly responsible for cellular energy. A comparison of which molecule types will be most likely to include the molecules primarily responsible for cellular energy?.

Answers

The main molecules responsible for cellular energy are the molecules of carbohydrates and fats.

Carbohydrates are the main source of energy for the body. If the consumption of carbohydrates is excessive, they will be stored in the form of glycogen. Glycogen is a form of glucose that is stored as an energy reserve. Glucose is stored in the liver.

After glycogen, the second source of energy reserves is lipids, or what is commonly known by the public as fat. Fat is also a source of energy. Then the last source of energy reserves is protein.

When the availability of glucose is running low, fat will be formed before it is broken down. Fat has begun to be used by the body as a source of energy when the availability of glucose remains half. Only after the fat is used up, the body will ask for protein to act as the last energy reserve source. So, glucose is broken down first, then fat is second, and protein is third.

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what is the expected functional consequence of movement of a transposable element within the genome?

Answers

The expected functional consequences of a transposable element moving within the genome are increased protein production, decreased protein production, and abnormal gene transcription.

The genome is a cell's entire set of DNA instructions. The genome of humans is made up of 23 pairs of chromosomes located inside the cell's nucleus, in addition to a small chromosome located in the cell's mitochondria. A genome contains all of the information required for a person to develop and function. A cut-and-paste mechanism allows DNA transposons to move from one genomic location to another. They are powerful forces of genetic change that have influenced the evolution of many genomes. DNA transposons can be used as genetic tools to insert a piece of foreign DNA into a genome.

Transposable elements (TE) are DNA segments that can move around the genome, or transpose. The presence of elements capable of intragenomic mobility in maize was discovered in the 1940s by American scientist Barbara McClintock and described in her seminal 1950 paper.

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the dietary manipulation that is related most significantly to longevity in animal studies is

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Caloric restriction is the dietary modification that has been shown to have the strongest association with longevity in animal studies (CR).

The only experimental, non-genetic paradigm that has been shown to lengthen lifespan is caloric restriction (CR). It has a wide range of applications and slows aging, extending life in most species. The use of CR in humans is of great curiosity, and studies on animals may provide information on its effects. Pick a diet reduced in cholesterol, saturated fat, and fat. Pick a diet that includes lots of grains, fruits, and vegetables. Sugars should only be used sparingly. Utilize sodium and salt sparingly. The diet places a strong emphasis on consuming things like whole grains, legumes, and veggies.

Contrary to some other diets, the Mediterranean diet only restricts a small number of items. Red meat, added sugar, and processed carbohydrates are foods to stay away from when following the Mediterranean diet. Consume a range of foods. Maintain or achieve your ideal weight by balancing the foods you eat with physical exercise. Pick a diet that includes lots of grain products, particularly whole grains, as well as vegetables and fruit. Make a decision to eat a diet reduced in fat, saturated fat, cholesterol, and trans fat.

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Correct Question:

The dietary manipulation that is related most significantly to longevity in animal studies is called as __________________.

What environmental parameters would need to be monitored as ddt moves up the food web of an ecosystem?

Answers

When DDT moves up the food web of an ecosystem, the environmental parameters that need to be monitored include air and water quality, soil fertility, and levels of other toxic pollutants.

Air quality should be monitored for concentrations of DDT and other pollutants, as DDT is typically airborne and can travel long distances, increasing the risk of exposure to other organisms. Water quality should be monitored for concentrations of DDT and other contaminants, as aquatic organisms are more likely to consume DDT particles that are present in water.

Soil fertility should also be monitored for levels of DDT and other pollutants, as DDT can accumulate in the soil and be taken up by plants, which can then be consumed by other organisms. Additionally, levels of other toxic pollutants should be monitored, as DDT can interact with other pollutants to create new and more dangerous compounds.

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What is the phenotype of TT TT?

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A tall pea plant with genotype (TT) and a tall pea plant with genotype (Tt) vary genetically, although they exhibit the same phenotypic. Both plants have a tall phenotype, which is a trait. The genotype is expressed in the phenotype.

To ascertain if a dominant parent is heterozygous or homozygous-dominant, a testcross is made between any genotype exhibiting a dominant phenotype and a recessive homozygote. It is a test cross, and Tt exhibits a dominant phenotype while TT is the recessive parent.

Recessive characteristics are those alleles that suppress the phenotype, whereas dominant traits are those that control the trait. A hybrid between a short pea plant (tt) and a tall plant (TT) only produced tall plants since tallness is the dominant trait.

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place the following events in order starting with the vibration of the oval window and ending with the depolarization of hair cells1) increased pressure in perilymph of scala vestibuli2) pressure wave depresses basilar membrane3) inner hair cells move closer to tectorial membrane4) stereocilia bend5) tip-link proteins open K+ channels6) K+ ions enter hair cell causing depolarization

Answers

The question mentions the Oval window in the human ear, which is a membrane covering the entrance to the cochlea in the inner ear.

The round window is a connective towel membrane located at the end of the middle ear and the baseline of the inner observance. The round window leads to a fluid-filled chamber that coils around in a structure called the cochlea. If the pressure is inordinate it can yield damage or indeed tear the round window.

The ensuing events in order starting with the vibration of the round window and ending with the depolarization of hair cells are given

1) Oval window vibrates or tip-link proteins open K channels

2) Increased pressure in the perilymph of scala vestibuli

3) Pressure surge depresses basilar membrane

4) Inner hair cells move closer to the tectorial membrane

5) Stereocilia bend

6) K ions enter hair cells causing depolarization

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diploid nuclei of the ascomycete neurospora crassa contain 14 chromosomes. a single diploid cell in an ascus will undergo one round of meiosis, followed in each of the daughter cells by one round of mitosis, producing a total of eight ascospores. how many chromosomes would a single ascospore nucleus of this species contain?

Answers

Diploid nuclei of the ascomycete neurospora crassa contain 14 chromosomes. The chromosomes a single ascospore nucleus of this species contain are (D) 7 chromosomes.

A single ascospore would be capable of containing all seven chromosomes. This is due to the fact that following meiosis-I, the number of chromosomes is reduced to half of its original size. Ploidy shifts from 2n = 14 (in the case of an ascus) to n = 7 (in the case of an ascospore). While there is no change to the total number of chromosomes in the event of mitosis. So the right option is an option (D) seven chromosomes.

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multigene families include two or more nearly identical genes or genes sharing nearly identical sequences. a classical example is the set of genes for globin molecules, including genes on human chromosomes 11 and 16. how might identical and obviously duplicated gene sequences have gotten from one chromosome to another?

Answers

Identical and obviously duplicated gene sequences have gotten from one chromosome to another by chromosomal translocation.

In terms of genetics, a translocation takes place when chromosome fragments and the (often two) fragmented portions reassociate with other chromosomes. For the diagnosis of several genetic diseases and syndromes, the finding of chromosomal translocations can be crucial.

Multigene families are groups of related or identical genes that have developed by gene duplication. It is thought that a single ancestral gene was duplicated and varied to create multigene families. The multigene families that code for actins, hemoglobins, immunoglobulins, tubulins, interferons, histones, etc. are a few examples.

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A specialized plasmid vector that has an e.coli promoter upstream of a restriction site into which foreign genes can be inserted is known as a?

Answers

vector of expression An eukaryotic gene can be put into a cloning vector that has a highly active bacterial promoter immediately upstream of a restriction site, allowing the gene to be produced in a bacterial cell.

It is a virus or plasmid that is created specifically for expressing genes in a cell. It is a vector that is frequently used to produce proteins.

They possess the fundamental characteristics of a vector, such as the ori (origin of replication), the insertion site, the selectable marker, etc.

Expression vectors may be categorized into two groups. Circular DNA molecules known as plasmids are simple to work with because bacterial organisms can help them grow. Viruses created specifically to "infect" a host cell with a desired gene are known as viral vectors.

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which is true of a neuron with a resting potential? group of answer choices the cell membrane is permeable to na but impermeable to k ions. the outer surface of the plasma membrane has a negative charge. the highest concentration of k is extracellular. the sodium pump has moved na to the outside of the plasma membrane.

Answers

The sodium pump has moved Na⁺ to the outside of the plasma membrane.

Since K⁺ is highly permeable to Na⁺ and only slightly permeable to Na⁺, and since neither of these ions is in an equilibrium diffusion of both ions down their electrochemical gradients—K⁺out of the cell and Na⁺ into the cell—should occur naturally. The fact that the concentrations of these ions are kept in permanent disequilibrium, however, suggests the existence of a compensating mechanism that pushes K⁺ inward and Na⁺outward against their respective concentration gradients. The sodium-potassium pump is this system's mechanism. The pump, which is in fact a sizable protein molecule that travels across the neuron's plasma membrane, exposes receptor sites to both the cytoplasm and the extracellular environment. The portion of the molecule that faces the cytoplasm has a high affinity for Na⁺ and a low affinity for K⁺, whereas the portion that faces the outside has a high affinity for K⁺ and a low affinity for Na⁺. The pump moves the ions against their concentration gradients when the ions act on their receptors, stimulating them.

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According to the flow of renal filtrate, rank these structures of the nephron in order of proximal to distal.
a. Glomerular capsule b. Proximal convoluted tubule c. Distal convoluted tubule d. Descending limb of the nephron loop

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Within the nephron, the tubular fluid flows from the DESCENDING LIMB OF THE NEPHRON LOOP; ASCENDING LIMB OF THE NEPHRON LOOP immediately into the PROXIMAL CONVOLUTED TUBULE; DESCENDING LIMB OF THE NEPHRON LOOP.

The nephrons of the kidneys procedure blood and create urine thru a procedure of filtration, reabsorption, and secretion. Urine is ready 95% water and 5% waste products.

Nitrogenous wastes excreted in urine encompass urea, creatinine, ammonia, and uric acid.Nephrons start withinside the cortex; the tubules dip right all the way down to the medulla, then go back to the cortex earlier than draining into the accumulating duct. The accumulating ducts then descend in the direction of the renal pelvis and empty urine into the ureter.

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