While changing her baby girl's diaper, a client expresses concern about a small spot of red vaginal discharge on the diaper. The nurse explain that this is an expected finding.
The putting a bag with a urine sample in it on the perineum. Temporary and unrelated to issues with bleeding, infection, or urinary elimination, vaginal discharge on the diaper is caused by the action of maternal hormones. Women are more prone to urinary tract infections. Most often, they affect the bladder or urethra, but more severe infections affect the kidney. A bladder infection may cause pelvic pain, increased urge to urinate, pain with urination and blood in the urine. A kidney infection may cause back pain, nausea, vomiting and fever.
Hence, appearance of red spot over vaginal discharge is expected findings.
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a team led by dr. stanley l. hazen and robert a. koeth of the cleveland clinic thought there might be a link between heart disease and the compound carnitine, which is abundant in red meat. digesting red meat increases the accumulation of carnitine, which reduces the flexibility of blood vessels. based on this information, what could a doctor predict about a patient who eats lots of meat? (2 points)
Carnitine accumulation may explain the patient's high blood pressure because decreased adaptability (reduced compliance, enhanced stiffness) of the blood vessel equates to increased pulse pressure and blood pressure.
Pulse wave velocity rises as arteries stiffen, and it is positively related to systolic and diastolic blood pressure. As a result, increased arterial stiffness caused by carnitine consumption raises blood pressure.
Arteriosclerosis, or artery hardening, develops as people age. Normal arteries are compliant, meaning they stretch as the pulse wave progresses through them. Atherosclerosis is a form of arteriosclerosis that is caused by plaque buildup on the vessel wall.
Carnitine is a quaternary ammonium compound that plays a role in the metabolism of most mammals, plants, and bacteria. High carnitine levels are associated with an increased risk of both prevalent CVD and heart attack, stroke, or death.
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Complete question :
A team led by Dr. Stanley L. Hazen and Robert A. Koeth of the Cleveland Clinic thought there might be a link between heart disease and the compound carnitine, which is abundant in red meat. Digesting red meat increases the accumulation of carnitine, which reduces the flexibility of blood vessels.
Based on this information, what could a doctor predict about a patient who eats lots of meat?
a) Carnitine accumulation may explain the patient's high blood pressure.
b) Carnitine accumulation may explain the patient's low blood pressure.
c) Carnitine digestion may explain the patient's increased number of red blood cells.
d) Carnitine digestion may explain the patient's decreased number of red blood cells.
which developmental stage would the nurse recognize when a 2-year-old child says 'bad, bad tree' after falling from a tree?
When a 2-year-old child says "bad, bad tree" after falling from a tree, the nurse will recognize the preconceptual operations developmental stage.
Preconceptual thought is associated with attributing lifelike qualities to inanimate objects. In school-age children, concrete operational thought is achieved. The concept of reversibility refers to a stage of concrete operations performed by school-age children. Infants are associated with sensorimotor development.
Growth and development encompasses not only the physical changes that occur from infancy to adolescence, but also some of the emotional, personality, behavior, thinking, and speech changes that children experience as they begin to comprehend and interact with the world around them. Developmental milestones are abilities such as taking the first step or smiling for the first time. Growth charts are a useful tool, but they do not provide an accurate picture of your child's development or overall health.
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an older client tells the nurse he is stressed because he thinks he has alzheimer's disease based on his long history of forgetfulness. what is the best nursing response?
Other diseases can mimic Alzheimer's disease, so a comprehensive evaluation is essential to rule out other causes of dementia in the older client by the nurse.
Before a diagnosis of Alzheimer's disease is made, a thorough evaluation is necessary to rule out any other possible causes of dementia because other illnesses might mirror the symptoms of the condition. Not delirium, Alzheimer's disease is a type of dementia.
Alzheimer's disease is a neurodegenerative ailment marked by issues with motor function and memory loss. Alzheimer's disease requires significant medical attention when it is in an advanced stage.
In conclusion, the nurse's nursing intervention for a forgetful, confused client with Alzheimer's disease would be to limit the patient's risky behaviors.
The complete question is:
An older client tells the nurse he is stressed because he thinks he has Alzheimer's disease. What is the best nursing response?
a) Other disease can mimic Alzheimer's disease, so a comprehensive evaluation is essential to rule out other causes of delirium.
b) No other disease can mimic Alzheimer's disease, so a comprehensive evaluation is not essential to rule out other causes of dementia.
c) Other diseases can mimic Alzheimer's disease, so a comprehensive evaluation is essential to rule out other causes of dementia.
d) No other disease can mimic Alzheimer's disease, so a comprehensive evaluation is not essential to rule out other causes of delirium.
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a pregnant client is receiving magnesium sulfate for the management of preeclampsia. the nurse determines that the client is experiencing toxicity from the medication if which findings are noted on assessment? select all that apply
Pregnant clients are given magnesium sulfate to treat preeclampsia. A nurse medication determines that a client is drug toxic if she takes 10 breaths per minute and urinates 20 ml per hour.
magnesium sulfate poisoning can occur with magnesium sulfate therapy. Signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity are associated with the drug's preeclampsia depressant effects on the central nervous system and include respiratory depression, loss of deep tendon reflexes, and rapid decreases in preeclampsia fetal and maternal heart rate and blood pressure.12 per minute A respiratory rate of less than 100 is a sign of toxicity.
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the condition characterized by abnormally high concentrations of calcium circulating in the blood
Answer: Hypercalcemia (High Level of Calcium in the Blood).
which statementwhich statements indicate a correct understanding of the tenets of the code of ethics for nurses? select all that apply. by the nurse is an example of deception?
The nurse maintains standards of personal conduct.
The nurse is active in developing a core of research-based principles.
The nurse holds personal information as confidential.
A guide for "carrying out nursing responsibilities in a way compatible with quality in nursing care and the ethical commitments of the profession," the nursing code of ethics is described by the American Nurses Association (ANA) as such. Ethics are generally referred to be the moral precepts that guide a person's behavior. All healthcare professionals must uphold ethical standards, but nurses in particular must do so given their position as caregivers.
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an unconscious client is admitted to the icu with a closed head injury suffered in a fall. despite aggressive efforts, the client expired within 24 hours. the nurse must complete postmortem care while awaiting the coroner. the nurse knows what action is not appropriate in this situation?
The actions which are not appropriate in this situation
1. Remove indwelling catheter
3. Remove hospital ID band
5. Wash body head to toe
The body undergoes a number of physical changes after death, including purple skin discoloration (livor mortis), loss of skin elasticity, and change in body temperature (algor mortis). To avoid tissue damage or disfigurement, postmortem care should be provided as soon as possible. Before beginning any other activities, the head of the bed should be raised and a clean pillow placed under the head immediately following death to prevent livor mortis of the face.
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(Complete question)
An unconscious client is admitted to the ICU with a closed head injury suffered in a fall. Despite aggressive efforts, the client expired within 24 hours. The nurse must complete postmortem care while awaiting the coroner. The nurse knows what action is notappropriate in this situation?
Select all that apply
1. Remove indwelling catheter
2. Disconnect the ET tube from ventilator
3. Remove hospital ID band
4. Cap all intravenous lines
5. Wash body head to toe
when assessing a patient who is receiving an antidepressant, which question would be of greatest priority for the nurse to ask?
Are you having thoughts about doing anything the could harm you.
Antidepressants are a type of medication that is used to treat major depression, anxiety disorders, chronic pain conditions, and addictions. Dry mouth, weight gain, dizziness, headaches, sexual dysfunction, and emotional blunting are all common side effects of antidepressants.
SSRIs are frequently prescribed first by doctors. These antidepressants have fewer annoying side effects and are less likely to cause problems at higher therapeutic doses than other types of antidepressants.
Clinicians usually advise people to keep taking antidepressants for six months after they start feeling better. Although it may be tempting to discontinue the medication as soon as you feel better, doing so will greatly increase your chances of relapse.
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the nurse manager is concerned about the large number of adolescent mothers being seen in the obstetrics clinic. how can the nurse manager use the transformational leadership style to address the concern?
The high percentage of adolescent mothers visiting the obstetrics clinic worries the nurse manager. The nurse can recruit volunteers to assist in creating a community outreach project that instructs teenagers about contraceptive options.
Teenage pregnancy occurs when a lady under 20 gets pregnant. Teenagers between the ages of 15 and 19 are typically the target audience. But females as young as 10 can participate. It is sometimes referred to as adolescent pregnancy or teen pregnancy. One of the most common signs of pregnancy is missing one or more menstrual cycles. Teenage girls, whose periods aren't yet regular, may find this challenging. Girls whose cycles are irregular due to diets, exercise, low body fat from sports, or anorexia may find it challenging.
The first few months of pregnancy are very important for prenatal care. Prenatal care checks for medical issues in both the mother and the unborn child keeps track of the child's development and responds immediately to any issues that may arise. Folic acid-fortified prenatal vitamins should be given prior to conception to help prevent some birth problems, such as neural tube defects.
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the discovery of the relationship between syphilis and paralytic dementia revealed that:_____.
The discovery of a connection involving syphilis and paralytic dementia indicated that "a mental disorder turned out to have a physiological cause". Hence, the correct answer is D.
What is paralytic dementia?Paralytic dementia is a type of organic mental condition that develops as a result of untreated late-stage syphilis and cerebral atrophy and the chronic meningoencephalitis that are linked to it. Paralytic dementia is distinct from mere paresis, which can have a variety of different reasons and frequently has no impact on cognitive performance. About 7% of syphilis patients also have the illness. Men are more likely to have it.
Paralytic dementia is also known as syphilitic paresis, general paresis, or general paralysis of the insane, or GPI.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
A. People with paralytic dementia tend to be promiscuous.B. Both sexually transmitted infections and mental disorders can have a common viral cause.C. Schizophrenia often co-occurred in patients with sexually transmitted infections like syphilis.D. A mental disorder turned out to have a physiological cause.The correct answer is D.
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a palatal condition of an elderly patient that is primarily caused by chronic irritation from the suction chamber of a denture is clinically observed as: group of answer choices a. fibroma b. papilloma c. papillary hyperplasia d. median palatal cyst
Palatal condition of elderly patients which is mainly caused by chronic irritation of the denture suction space clinically observed is a. Fibroma.
What are Palatal Petechiae?Palatal petechia is a term that describes bleeding that occurs in the oral mucosa. This condition generally coexists with mononucleosis, measles, scarlet fever, leukemia, thrombocytopenia, and disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Red spots on the roof of the mouth are generally caused by irritation from food, dentures, or mouth/throat infections. Even so, this condition is generally not dangerous and will go away on its own.
Other conditions that can cause physical injury or bruise to the mouth are:
Dentures that don't fit anymore. Broken tooth edge. Uneven dental fillings or broken crowns. Sensitivity or allergic reaction to certain ingredients in some toothpaste or mouthwashes.Learn more about mouth pain here :
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which complication associated with type 1 diabetes should the nurse include in the teaching plan for parents of a newly diagnosed child
Ketoacidosis is associated with type 1 diabetes should the nurse include in the teaching plan for parents of a newly diagnosed child.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious diabetes complication that can be fatal. DKA is most common in type 1 diabetes patients. DKA can occur in people with type 2 diabetes. DKA occurs when your body does not produce enough insulin to allow blood sugar into your cells for energy use.
Without enough insulin, the body starts breaking down fat for fuel. This results in a buildup of acids in the bloodstream known as ketones. If left untreated, the accumulation can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis.
DKA can occur in people with type 2 diabetes, but it is less common and less severe. It is usually caused by uncontrolled blood sugar for an extended period of time, missed medication doses, or a severe illness or infection.
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How many cup-equivalents from foods in the dairy group are recommended for adults each day?
Answer: 3 cup equivalent
Explanation:
true or false? pneumococcal meningitis is quite infectious and is readily transmitted from person to person by close physical contact.
Pneumococcal meningitis is quite infectious and is readily transmitted from person to person by close physical contact. This statement is False.
A pneumococcal infection is caused by the bacterium Streptococcus pneumoniae, also known as the pneumococcus. S. pneumoniae is a common bacterial flora member found in 5-10% of healthy adults and 20-40% of healthy children's noses and throats. It is, however, a significant cause of disease, being a leading cause of pneumonia, bacterial meningitis, and sepsis. According to the World Health Organization, pneumococcal infections killed 1.6 million children worldwide in 2005.
Pneumococcal pneumonia accounts for 15%-50% of all community-acquired pneumonia episodes, 30%-50% of all acute otitis media cases, and a significant proportion of bloodstream infections and bacterial meningitis.
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a man reports to his doctor that he is tired all the time and his urine has become darker in color. he has not experienced fever or vomiting recently. the physician notes that his eyes are yellowish and his abdomen is swollen and tender. the man has a history intravenous drug injection. what is your diagnosis and can this disease cause chronic infection?
He is suffering with the virus hepatitis A.
What is hepatitis virus?
Hepatitis can be brought on by chemicals, drugs, some medical disorders, and heavy alcohol consumption. Hepatitis, however, is frequently brought on by a virus. Hepatitis A, B, and C are the three most prevalent forms of viral hepatitis in the United States.
The hepatitis B virus is what causes hepatitis B. (HBV). Blood and other bodily fluids contain the virus. When a person who is not immune comes into touch with blood or bodily fluid from an infected individual, hepatitis B can be transmitted.
Acute hepatitis B infection is the name given to the initial stage of the illness, which lasts for the first six months following infection. Many individuals display no symptoms at all during this stage. When there are symptoms, the sickness is typically not severe and most people don't recognize that they have liver disease.
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a client is diagnosed with leukemia. what should the nurse teach this client regarding vaccinations?
The nurse teaches this client about vaccinations, which are not recommended due to a weakened immune system.
Leukemia is a type of cancer that affects blood-forming tissues, including bone marrow. There are several types of leukemia, including acute lymphoblastic leukaemia, acute myeloid leukaemia, and chronic lymphocytic leukaemia.
Many patients with slow-growing leukemia do not exhibit symptoms. Rapidly progressing leukemias can cause fatigue, weight loss, frequent infections, and easy bleeding or bruising.
Leukemia begins in the soft, inner part of the bones (bone marrow), but it frequently spreads to the bloodstream. It can then spread to other parts of the body, including lymph nodes, the spleen, the liver, the central nervous system, and other organs.
Treatment varies greatly. Treatment for slow-growing leukemias may include monitoring. Chemotherapy, sometimes followed by radiation and stem-cell transplant, is used to treat aggressive leukemias.
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meningococcal meningitis is definitively diagnosed from cultures isolated from nasopharyngeal swabs, blood, or cerebrospinal on thayer–martin medium, a selective medium for the growth neisseria. however, preliminary diagnosis is often based on clinical symptoms, and treatment with antibiotics is started before culture tests confirm infection with n. meningitidis. why?
The treatment with antibiotics is started before culture tests confirm infection with n. meningitidis because it's life-threatening symptoms can develop very rapidly.
Meningococcal meningitis refers to any malady caused by microorganism known as Neisseria meningitidis. These diseases are typically severe, is deadly, and embody infections of the liner of the brain and neural structure (meningitis) and blood.
Bacteria known as N. meningitidis cause meningococcal diseases. concerning one in ten individuals have these microorganism within the back of their nose and throat while not being sick. this can be known as being 'a carrier. ' generally the microorganism invade the body and cause sure diseases, that are referred to as meningococcal diseases.
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an older adult client is diagnosed with sundown syndrome. what nursing action should the nurse perform to address this syndrome?
Provide physical activity in the afternoon.
Sundowning, also known as sundown syndrome, is a neurological condition characterized by increased confusion and restlessness in people suffering from delirium or another form of dementia. It is most commonly associated with Alzheimer's disease, but it can also be found in other types of dementia.
The term "sundowning" was coined by nurse Lois K. Evans in 1987 due to the timing of the person's increased confusion beginning in the late afternoon and early evening. For people with sundown syndrome, a slew of behavioral issues emerge and are linked to long-term negative outcomes. Sundowning appears to be more common in the middle stages of Alzheimer's disease and mixed dementia, and it appears to diminish as the person's dementia progresses.
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why is it important for nurses to understand the premises of environmental health? group of answer choices many americans live in areas that meet current national air quality standards pollutant exposures such as lead are reported by nurses to the environmental protection agency (epa) toxicologists often consult nurses about environmental pollutants nurses should be able to assess risks and advocate for policies that support healthy environments
Risk evaluation skills and advocacy for laws that promote healthy surroundings should be available to nurses. Role of nurse in addressing environmental health issues can be conceptualized in different ways.
Other practice models, such as the CPHF model, which assigns three responsibilities for health professionals investigator, educator, and advocate can be added to or incorporated into the nursing process. While the tasks of educator and advocate would indeed be carried out as interventions for environmental health, the job of the investigator promotes the assessment and evaluation stages of the nursing process. This framework includes a variety of activities that may be foreign to nurses who arrange their practice within the more conventional framework of the nursing process was applied to individual patient care, such as working with communities and on issues of public policy.
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explain two strategies that you, as an advanced practice nurse would use to guide your decision making in this scenario, including whether you would disclose your error. be sure to justify your explanation.
A prescription is a written order from a registered medicinal practitionar to pharmacist to compounding and dispenses a specific medication for the patient.
A pharmacist, also referred to as a chemist or druggist, is a medical professional who prepares, supervises, formulates, preserves, and distributes medications as well as counsels and directs the general public on the proper use of medications to achieve the greatest benefit, the fewest side effects, and to prevent drug interactions. They also act as the community's main healthcare providers. To comprehend the biochemical mechanisms and activities of medications, drug uses, therapeutic functions, side effects, potential drug interactions, and monitoring criteria, pharmacists must complete university- or graduate-level education. Physiology, pathophysiology, and anatomy are related to this. To patients, doctors, and other healthcare professionals, pharmacists translate and convey this specific information.
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the nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed medication to a client diagnosed with gerd. if the nurse discovers the client has a history of vitamin b12, which medication(s) will the nurse administer cautiously? select all that apply.
Rabeprazole and Pantoprazole medication. Insufficient red blood cells prevent your tissues and organs from receiving enough oxygen.
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, and duodenal ulcers are all conditions that are treated with rabeprazole. Additionally, it can be used in conjunction with medicationlike amoxicillin and clarithromycin to treat ulcers brought on by bacterial infections. Only disorders like Zollinger Ellison syndrome, which are characterized by very high stomach acid output, are suggested for pantoprazole 40 mg twice a day, and people with these illnesses should be under a doctor's supervision.
The complete question is:
The nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed medication to a client diagnosed with gerd. if the nurse discovers the client has a history of vitamin b12, which medication(s) will the nurse administer cautiously? select all that apply.
Rabeprazole
Diphenoxylate
Pantoprazole
Difenoxin
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which outcome in a newborn would the nurse expect when the parent holds the infant in an upright position on the shoulder and rocks the infant in a vertical fashion?
The outcome that the nurse would anticipate in a newborn is the "maintenance of alertness" when the parent holds the newborn in an upright position upon that shoulder and rocks the infant vertically. The correct answer is C.
Hold the upright position For the InfantOne can support the baby's head and neck with one hand while holding them against the chest and shoulder to hold her upright. With the other hand, support the bottom of the infant. The most crucial thing in this position is to support the baby's head and neck whenever we pick him up, carry him, or hug him. In this position, parents should maintain their alertness.
This question should be provided with answer choices, which are:
A) Prevention of aspirationB) Induction of sleepC) Maintenance of alertnessD) Prevention of the gag reflexThe correct answer is C.
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1) the community nurse is preparing to visit the home of an adolescent who is 18 weeks pregnant. which health problems should the nurse focus on when assessing this patient?[
health problems should the nurse focus on when assessing this patient are Preeclampsia, Preterm birth, Low-birth-weight, Iron deficiency anemia
By informing health problems for mothers about the advantages of healthy eating, enough sleep, good hygiene, family planning, exclusive breastfeeding, immunization, and other disease Preterm birth prevention during the antenatal period, you can enhance the well-being of the women in your care as well as the health of their Preterm birth babies before and after birth. Iron deficiency anemia is more likely to occur if you're pregnant. Insufficient healthy red blood cells prevent enough oxygen from reaching the body's tissues in those with iron deficiency anemia.
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juliana has been taking thorazine to treat her schizophrenic symptoms. after taking the medication for almost a year, she is now experiencing trembling of her limbs and involuntary movements of her face and lips. her doctor decides to change her medication to reduce and/or eliminate these motor movement issues. the doctor is most likely to prescribe:
It is possible to suggest antipsychotic medications like clozapine. The most often given pharmaceuticals are antipsychotics, which constitute the cornerstone of therapy for schizophrenia.
schizophrenia are believed to impact the brain chemical dopamine, which regulates symptoms. Antipsychotic drug therapy aims to successfully control indications and symptoms at the lowest dose achievable. To get the desired outcome, the psychiatrist may experiment with various medications, dosages, or combinations over time. Other medicines, such as antidepressants or anxiety meds, may also be beneficial. It may take many weeks before symptoms start to get better. Aripiprazole (Abilify), asenapine (Saphris), brexpiprazole (Rexulti), and cariprazine are second-generation antipsychotics (Vraylar).
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a 50-year old patient presents with 1 mm of attachment loss in most of the mouth, however there is 6 mm of attachment loss present on the proximal surfaces of the maxillary first and second molars. which of the following is the most likely disease classification for this patient? group of answer choices a) localized periodontitis b) redundant periodontitis c) recurrent periodontitis d) refractory periodontitis
Localized periodontitis is the disease classification for this patient.
What is Localized periodontitis?LAP, commonly referred to as localized aggressive periodontitis, is an uncommon form of inflammatory periodontal disease. It is distinguished by its capacity for quick progression and significant bone and attachment loss, particularly on the incisors and early molars. A young age of onset is another characteristic of the illness.
Around the time that adolescents start going through puberty, localized aggressive periodontitis usually develops. When the first molar and/or the incisors on at least two permanent teeth lose their interproximal attachment, the illness is present. Except for the primary molars and incisors, it only affects one to two teeth, is devoid of inflammation, and shows signs of extensive periodontal pockets and progressive bone loss. Additionally, the rate of advancement is rapid.
As the patient gets older, the condition could worsen, affect nearby teeth, and eventually cause generalised aggressive periodontitis (GAP). Along with displaying a strong reaction with blood antibodies to infections, the periodontal tissue can also show some clinical indications of inflammation.
The amount of plaque that is present does not match the volume and degree of tissue that has been damaged. However, the presence of more bacteria, including Porphyromonas gingivalis and Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans, results in a high plaque pathogenicity.
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the nurse is initiating the admission assessment on a client diagnosed with parkinson disease. the client is slow to answer questions and appears to be frustrated trying to find the right words. which communication technique by the nurse is appropriate?
The communication techniques that are appropriate for clients with Parkinson's disease that has difficulty finding the right words are:
Ask yes/no questions.Repeat the sentence that you understood, such as "You woke up at what time today?"Using non-verbal communication.Parkinson's disease is a brain disorder that decreases the victim's ability to regulate body movements and emotions. Once it's progressed enough, the victim may also become hard to communicate or speak.
To have good communication with a client with Parkinson's disease, one must speak slowly and clearly. Exaggerating articulation may also help the client to understand and a quiet environment would be very helpful.
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he nurse is talking with the parents of a child who has a tracheoesophageal fistula. which information should be provided? select one: a. a nasogastric tube will be inserted for feeding. b. the infant should be provided a pacifier. c. the infant will have tpn for nutrition. d. the infant will need a special feeder that goes to the back of the mouth.
The nurse is talking with the parents of a child who has a tracheoesophageal fistula a nasogastric tube will be inserted for feeding.
What causes tracheoesophageal fistula?Having an improper contact between your stomach or trachea is known as a tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF). Congenital indicates that the condition developed while the fetus was still developing. TEF can also develop as an adult as a result of malignancy, an infection, or trauma.
Tracheoesophageal fistula: is it curable?The majority of the perforation cannot be surgically treated. Additionally, medical intervention is ineffective in curing the illness. In medicine, treating TEF is a constant struggle. Stenting is by far the best way to close the fistula.
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during clinical teaching, the nurse educator is asked to explain the difference between standard and hydrolyzed formulas. how would the nurse explain the difference?
the nurse would explain the difference as, Standard formulas have whole proteins, whereas completely hydrolyzed formulas contain only free amino acids as their source of protein.
Protein hydrolysate is frequently used instead of regular cow's milk formulae (with intact proteins) when human milk is unavailable to feed preterm infants since it is thought that it is more tolerable and less likely to cause difficulties. Protein hydrolysate formulae are more expensive than normal formulas, and there is worry that their use in practice may not be well-supported by reliable research. The majority of patients were clinically healthy preterm infants with gestational ages under 34 weeks and birth weights under 1750 g. Extreme preterm birth, extremely low birth weight, and growth restriction affected fewer individuals. In most trials, there were no impacts on feed intolerance as measured by mean prefeed gastric residual volume or other metrics.
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a client has received procaine hydrochloride (novocain) for a minor skin procedure. three days later, the client returns to the clinic and has developed redness, swelling, and inflammation at the injection site. what is the priority action for the nurse to take?
The priority action that must be taken by nurses in patients who experience redness, swelling, and pain at the site of injury is to reduce patient complaints because the client may have allergies.
What is procaine?Procaine is a local anesthetic of the ester type that has a slow onset and short duration of action. This drug is primarily used for infiltration anesthesia, peripheral nerve blocks, and spinal blocks.
Procaine works by stabilizing the nerve membranes thereby preventing the formation and transmission of impulses along nerve fibers and at nerve endings. In general, pain relief occurs before the loss of sensory, autonomic, and motor function.
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the nurse caring for a client who is prescribed biologic response modifiers to boost the immune response. which medication does the nurse expect to find on the medication administration record (mar)?
The nurse anticipate finding Aldesleukin (Proleukin) on the medicine administration record(MAR).
Aldesleukin can result in a serious and potentially fatal response known as capillary leak syndrome, which causes the body to retain extra fluid, low blood pressure, as well as low amounts of a protein called albumin in the blood. This illness can harm your heart, lung, kidneys, and digestive system. Capillary leak syndrome may develop right away after receiving aldesleukin. Tell your doctor and nurse right away if you suffer any of the symptoms listed: Weight gain, chest discomfort, shortness of breath, fainting, woozy or lightheadedness, disorientation, swelling of the hand, feet, ankle, or lower legs, swelling of the feet, ankles, or lower legs, or swelling of the right hand, feet, or ankles. The neurological system may be affected by aldesleukin, which might result in coma. Tell your doctor right away if you suffer any of the following symptoms: extreme slumber
(The nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed biologic response modifiers to boost the immune response for renal cell carcinoma. Which medication does the nurse expect to find on the medication administration record (MAR)?
1. Aldesleukin (Proleukin)
2. Anakinra (Kineret)
3. Azathioprine (Azasan)
4. Basiliximab (Simulect))
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