The average well-nourished 4-year-old requires 90–100 kcal/kg body weight per day, or 63.87 kcal/kg per day. Sue, who weighs 34 pounds, was given this one-day food despite being critically malnourished.
When a person is malnourished, their body does not receive the necessary amount of nutrients. It is sometimes referred to as inadequate nourishment. A 4-year-estimated old's daily calorie needs range from 90 to 100 kcal/kg. malnourished is the term used to describe when a person receives fewer nutrients than they need. The right response is 63.87 kcal/kg daily body weight. The meal will deliver 3.5 times more protein per kg of body weight than a normal, well-nourished toddler would require based on the protein level of the menu. This may Malnutrition be determined using the formula: grams of protein per day = total grams of protein / weight in kilograms of body weight.
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Meningococcal meningitis is definitively diagnosed from cultures isolated from nasopharyngeal swabs, blood, or cerebrospinal on thayer–martin medium, a selective medium for the growth neisseria. however, preliminary diagnosis is often based on clinical symptoms, and treatment with antibiotics is started before culture tests confirm infection with n. meningitidis. why?
Meningococcal infection requires prompt detection and treatment. Unexpected fever onset, headaches, and stiff neck are common meningococcal symptoms.
Explain about the Meningococcal?Meningococcal disease is any ailment brought on by the Neisseria meningitidis bacterium. Meningitis and infections of the bloodstream's lining of the brain and spinal cord are among these disorders, which are frequently fatal and very severe.
Coughing or prolonged close contact with someone who is ill or who is carrying the germs can spread it from one person to another. Kissing drinking together, or cohabiting are examples of contact. Meningococcal bacteria can be found in the nose or throat of up to one in ten people without any symptoms.
Meningococcal disease is caused by bacteria with the name Neisseria meningitidis. These bacteria are found in the throat and back of the nose in about one in ten people who aren't sick.
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what is the name of the procedure in which blood is temporarily withdrawn, one or more components are selectively removed, and the remainder of the blood is returned to the patient?
Specific blood components from patient may now be collected using a technique known as apheresis.
Red blood cells, platelet (blood components that are crucial for clotting), plasma, and granulocytes are all selectively collected via apheresis (a type of infection-fighting white blood cell). During a vascular access operation, a flexible, sterile plastic tube known as a catheter is inserted into a blood artery to enable the delivery of medicine or the drawing of blood from the patient. Chemotherapy, long-term IV nutrition, blood transfusions, intravenous (IV) antibiotic treatment, and/or other drugs are all possible uses for catheters. Vascular access offers a pleasant approach to take blood samples or administer medicine while sparing patients the anxiety of many needle jabs.
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the nurse is providing care for a 51-year-old client who has been taking cimetidine for several months. when monitoring for adverse effects, the nurse should perform what assessment?
Make sure the client has no gynecomastia.Drug half-lives are prolonged by larger drug reservoirs and reduced clearance, which raise plasma levels.
There are particular difficulties when prescribing for elderly individuals. Older client are frequently excluded from premarketing medication studies, and authorized dosages may not be suitable for them [1]. Make sure the customer has no gynecomastia.Due to age-related changes of pharmacokinetics (i.e., absorption, distribution, metabolism, & excretion) and pharmacodynamics, many drugs need to be administered with extra caution (the physiologic effects of the drug). While providing medications to elderly persons, more attention must be given when selecting prescription dosages. With age, there may be a proportionate rise in body fat compared to skeletal muscle, which might lead to a higher volume of distribution. Even in the presence of renal illness, the age-related natural reduction in renal function might result in decreased medication clearance [2]. Drug half-lives are prolonged by larger drug reservoirs and reduced clearance, which raise plasma levels.
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he charge nurse is unable to replace a registered nurse for a shift on an acute medical unit. the staffing department states they are able to send an additional unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) to assist. what priority action would the charge nurse take in this situation?
Notify the facility's dangerous working conditions to the local nursing regulatory agency. To request a registered nurse to help on the unit, contact charge nurses on other units.
Tell management that a nurse has to be sought and decline to establish the client assignment. Consider the customer's demands and the ability level of the available employees while creating the client assignment. The charge nurse's first priority is to guarantee a safe allocation of client demands among the available staff members when there are fewer registered nurses than is desirable for a given number of clients. The customers' safety is the charge nurse's first priority.
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manuel and manfred are twins, and both treat psychological disorders. manuel received his m.d. and often prescribes medications while manfred received a ph.d. and practices therapy. it is most likely that ________________________.
The twins Manuel and Manfred both specialize in the treatment of mental illnesses. Manfred has a Ph.D. and performs therapy, but Manuel has an M.D. and frequently writes prescriptions for drugs. Manfred is most likely a clinical psychologist, while Manuel is most likely a psychiatrist.
Psychiatrists' unique understanding of the connection between physical and mental health and their medical training represent the primary distinction between the two professions. In contrast to psychologists, psychiatrists are allowed to prescribe medication to their patients, and medical interventions form the core of their clinical practice.
Although a psychology bachelor's degree is a great choice for aspiring psychiatrists, it does not prepare you to work in this field of medicine. You must complete a medical degree program and a 4- or 5-year residency in psychiatry in order to become a psychiatrist.
Thus, we might conclude that Manuel is probably a psychiatrist and Manfred is probably a clinical psychologist.
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when must the patient receive the next intravenous dose of the drug in order to maintain a concentration above 1 mg/l and below 8 mg/l?
After a time gap of 1 hour after eating the patient receive the next intravenous dose of the drug in order to maintain a concentration above 1 mg/l and below 8 mg/l.
Some drugs must be administered via intravenous dose injection or infusion. This implies that they are inserted through a tube or needle directly into your vein. In actuality, the word "intravenous" refers to a vein. An IV catheter, a tiny plastic tube used for IV administration, is placed into your vein. The catheter enables your doctor to administer you several secure dosages of medication without having to stick you with a needle repeatedly. Most of the time, you won't inject yourself with medicine. While some infusion drugs can be taken by the patient at home, it's likely that the patient will receive therapy from a healthcare provider. Certain medications may be administered intravenously (IV) because if you took them orally (by mouth), your stomach or liver would break them down.
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a client presents with a type iii overhang on an amalgam restoration. which of the following statements related to this overhang is correct? group of answer choices a. covers less than one third of interproximal space b. restoration indicated for replacement c. indicated for a margination procedure d. clinically not detectable
Type III overhangs are indicated for replacement as the risk for fracture or damage to the restoration during margination procedures is too great.
Thus correct option (b).
Dental amalgam is a metal restorative made of mercury mixed with a silver-tin-copper alloy. To restore the tooth's form and function, the unset mixture is pushed (condensed) into a specially made undercut tooth form.
These mercury-based goods were gradually phased out for both environmental and health precautions. Similar to Norway, there was a lot of public pressure in the years before the prohibition. The Swedish government has kept looking on measures to lessen mercury pollution even since the ban.
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an older adult client has recent signs and symptoms that suggest lewy body dementia. what assessment question best addresses the possible etiology of the disease?
The assessment question that needs to be addressed is that "Do you have a history of a family member with dementia?"
A disease is a particular atypical condition that negatively affects the structure or feature of all or part of an organism, and that isn't without delay because of any external injury. Diseases are regularly recognized to be medical conditions that are associated with particular symptoms and signs and symptoms.
There are four foremost forms of the disease: infectious disease, deficiency disease, hereditary disease(inclusive of both genetic illnesses and non-genetic hereditary diseases), and physiological disease.
Infectious disease is a result of living organisms like viruses and bacteria. described as contagious, they can be exceeded from character to character thru body secretions, insects, or other manners.
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a client who had an open cholecystectomy two weeks ago comes to the emergency department with complaints of nausea, abdominal distention, and pain. which assessment should the nurse implement? a. auscultate all quadrants of the abdomen. b. perform a digital rectal exam c. palpate the liver and spleen d. obtain a hemoccult of the client's stool
The assessment which should be implemented by the nurse on the patient who had undergone open cholecystectomy is Auscultate all quadrant of the abdomen, which suggests that option A is the right answer.
An open cholecystectomy is a surgical operation performed on the right side of the abdomen wherein the surgeon makes a long incision in the abdomen to first take out several tissues and then removes the gallbladder. The incision is stitched up and the patient is taken to a recovery area. The assessment by the nurse involves listening of the bowel sound by placing the diaphragm of stethoscope lightly over the right lower quadrant and this is repeated for other portions too.
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a 37-year-old client has received procaine hydrochloride (novocain) in the mouth for a dental procedure. how would the nurse evaluate that the outcome of reduced pain related to a dental procedure has been met?
The client's facial expressions are calm and relaxed by receiving procaine hydrochloride (novocain) in the mouth for a dental procedure.
Procaine's primary use is as an anesthetic. Apart from its use as a dental anesthetic, procaine is used less often today, when more effective (and hypoallergenic) alternatives such as lidocaine (xylocaine) exist. Like other local anesthetics (such as mepivacaine and prilocaine), procaine is a vasodilator, so it is often applied together with epinephrine for vasoconstriction. Procaine is a local anesthetic for anesthesia, peripheral nerve block, and spinal nerve block. A local anesthetic of the ester type that has a slow onset and short duration of action. It is mainly used for infiltration anesthesia, peripheral nerve, and spinal cord.
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how do you calculate the incidence risk in total population? a d / a b c d a c / a b c d a b c / a b c d a b / a b c d
The incidence risk can be calculated by dividing the total new cases by the population at risk observed at the beginning of observation period.
Incidence risk is a proportional value. It can change as per the occurrence of the disease. More are the cases arriving of the disease, more is its incidence risk. The incidence risk is also compared according to a particular time period.
Population is defined as the group of same individuals that live in the same space, utilize the same resources and are able to breed amongst each other. Population inhabits the individuals of the same species.
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which knowledge enables the advanced practice registered nurse (aprn) to recognize phenomena associated with specific health problems
APRNs are nurses who have met advanced educational and clinical practice requirements, and often provide services in community-based settings.
APRNs are registered nurses who have completed advanced educational and clinical practice requirements and frequently work in community-based settings. Primary and preventive care, mental health, birthing, and anesthesia are all services provided by APRNs.
APRNs are capable of performing a wide range of tasks. The type of advanced practice degree will determine this. A CRNA, for example, will provide and monitor general anesthesia for a patient, whereas a CNS will educate staff and patients. A CNM will assist in the delivery of babies and care for women of childbearing age, whereas an NP will treat, diagnose, and prescribe medications for patients. APRNs have an RN degree but additional education and training specific to a patient population and skill set.
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sarah requires medicine for her gout at a dosage of 15 mg per dose. she is 45 kg. how much medicine is she getting per kilogram body weight?
According to question, Sarah requires 0.33 mg/kg medicine for her gout at a dosage of 15 mg per dose.
A painful variety of arthritis is gout. Sharp crystals may form in the big toe or other joints when your body produces too much uric acid, leading to episodes of aching and swelling known as gout attacks. Medication and dietary and lifestyle modifications can be used to treat gout.
Pork, lamb, and red meat. liver, kidneys, and glandular meats like the thymus or pancreas are examples of organ meats (you may hear them called sweetbreads) seafood, particularly shellfish like sardines, shrimp, lobster, mussels, and anchovies.
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what practice represents an effective strategy in a non-diet approach to weight loss? a. gauge progress based on successes in adopting healthy eating and exercise habits. b. check weight several times a day and make micro-adjustments to eating habits on a continual basis. c. after eating a pint of ice cream and some cookies, spend extra time at the gym to work them off. d. focus on appearance as the incentive in pursuing lifelong optimal weight. e. eat only salads for a day or two to lose those extra pounds picked up over the weekend.
Gauge progress based on the successes in adopting healthy eating and exercise habits.
What is Gauge progress ?
Gauge progress is a term used to describe how well an individual is progressing in terms of their health. Gauge progress can be used to assess a variety of health factors such as weight, cholesterol levels, blood pressure, and physical activity. Gauge progress is an important tool for tracking health progress over time and helping individuals make positive changes to their health.
Progress can be gauged by a number of measures, such as the number of healthy meals eaten per day, the number of servings of fruits and vegetables consumed, the amount of physical activity completed per week, and the number of days without junk food. Additionally, changes in weight, cholesterol levels, and other health indicators can be used to measure progress.
Therefore, Option A is correct.
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a nurse observes the unlicensed assistive personnel (uap) ask a client what the client wants for breakfast, lunch, and dinner while assisting the client to toilet. which action by the nurse is appropriate?
Direct help to submit only one idea at a time. UAP assisting personnel (UAP refers to persons trained in the role of nurses assisting in prescribed patient care).
Nurses are increasingly relying on unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to effectively treat and care for all patients. While a UAP can be vital to a facility's care delivery plan, their responsibilities—in terms of what they are allowed to do—are very different from those of nurses. Nurse leaders need to understand these differences so they can provide the best care possible, delegated and under the supervision of a nurse practitioner. Typical activities that are performed by non-licensed assistants include, but are not limited to: Vital signs. signs; washing, feeding, or caring for the sick; patient feeding, transportation, ambulation, toileting.
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what are four reasons that a nursing home administrator might offer in resistance to the idea of converting his home into an eden alternative?
Unconventional ideas to draw in newcomers, that a nursing home administrator might offer in resistance to the idea of converting his home into an eden alternative
Elderly or disabled people can get residential care at a nursing home. [1] Nursing homes are sometimes known as long-term care facilities or skilled nursing facility (SNF). These terms typically indicate whether a facility is public or private as well as if it focuses on nursing care, assisted living, or both emergency medical care and assisted living. Nursing homes are for those who don't need to be in the hospital but need care that can't be given at home. In addition to taking care of the patients' medical needs, nursing home facility nurses may also be in charge of managing other staff members, depending on their seniority. It takes a registered nurse (RN), who typically needs two to six years of education, to evaluate and keep track of nursing home residents. The RN's responsibilities include supervising nursing assistants and licensed practical nurses, implementing care plans, delivering medications, maintaining accurate records for each resident, monitoring and recording changes in their health, and keeping accurate records (LPN). Nurses are not required to choose a specialty. In order to be recognized as specialist nurse practitioners, RNs may need education in their field of specialization in addition to additional experience gained through clinical practices.
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which fiber type allows frances to stand for hours in her job as a nurse? group of answer choices type i fiber type iia fiber type iix fiber type iii fiber
Frances can work as a nurse and stand for long periods of time thanks to type I fiber.
Your body's fast- or slow-twitch muscle fiber count and type were established during the second trimester of your mother's pregnancy. Each of your muscle fibers is mostly made up of water, followed by protein, phosphates, calcium, magnesium, sodium, potassium, chloride, lipids, carbs, and amino acids, which make up the remaining 25 percent. 430 of your muscles are voluntary, making about 40 to 50 percent of your total weight. The largest single tissue in your body is the skeletal muscle.
There are two main categories of muscle fibers. Your postural muscles are slow-twitch Type I endurance muscles in the red color you can spend the entire day in this position thanks to these muscles. Rapid, forceful motions need the recruitment of type II fast twitch fibers. Type II fibers fall into one of two categories. Fibers of type II a-intermediate are a little oxidative.
Option A is the right response, so that is what it is.
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the nurse educator is teaching a class of nursing students about diet adherence in the client with obesity. the students are given an assignment to break into groups and make a list of strategies that can be used to encourage clients to adhere to their diets. the instructor determines that teaching was effective if what strategy is on every list?
The instructor determines that teaching could be more effective if the strategy used is that on every list the client's preprinted menus are given.
Obesity is the condition when the BMI (Body Mass Index) of the person is abnormally high which suggests that the person suffers from over weight. It causes sevral heart diseases and may cause unwanted health issues or disorders. Hence controlling one's diet and eating healthy food could be a good alternative to supppress the fats to get accumulated in the body. Providing diet plans to patients before hand could help them eat what is actually needed for the body and thus avoid food that tempts the mind but also causes harm to body specifically the junk food such as pizza, burgers, high carb diet, artificial sweets etc. Hence, such practical assessments could be more beneficial to the students.
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the nurse is teaching a client who is to be discharged with an order to use chemical stimulant laxatives prn. the nurse should caution the client about what potential adverse effect?
A) Abdominal cramping. Diarrhea, cramping in the abdomen, and nausea are typical side effects of laxatives.
Negative effects on the central nervous system (CNS), such as weakness, headaches, and vertigo, can happen. Rectal bleeding, disorientation, and iron deficiency anemia can happen when laxatives are misused but are not linked to proper usage of laxatives. The saline laxatives magnesium hydroxide and magnesium citrate, as well as the stimulant laxatives bisacodyl and senna pills, are the fastest-acting oral laxatives. Mineral oil is another option. Milk of Magnesia, Dulcolax, and Senokot are typical OTC medications in this category.
The complete question is:
The nurse, teaching a patient to be discharged with an order to use chemical stimulant laxatives PRN, instructs the patient that one of the most common adverse effects of this type of laxative is what?
A) Abdominal cramping
B) Rectal bleeding
C) Confusion
D) Iron deficiency anemia
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the patient exhibits petechiae on both lower legs but has no other complaints. how should the np proceed?
The patient exhibits petechiae on both lower legs but has no other complaints. the np proceed in Order a CBC .CBC is known as Complete Blood Count.
The presence of petechiae on the lower legs (or anywhere on the body) should prompt the NP to consider a low platelet count issue. A CBC should be checked to assess the platelet count and for any signs of anemia due to blood loss. If the platelet count is low, hematology referral should be done. Blood cultures were unremarkable in this patient, who was atypical. For a complete blood count, a member of your healthcare team takes a blood sample by inserting a needle into a vein in your arm, usually your elbow. You can resume your usual activities immediately. Perform a complete blood count and review your blood cell levels (red, white, platelets)
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the nurse observes the five-year-old child playing with several other children about the same age. the nurse identifies which play activity as the one in which the child is most likely to engage?
The nurse identified the most likely play activities for a 5-year-old child to play with Building Blocks, puzzles, Lego, and stacking toys.
What is a play educational?Play is an activity carried out with or without tools that generates understanding or provides information, gives pleasure, and develops imagination in children.
Children's educational play is toys that can improve children's abilities and help them learn about something. Some abilities that can increase a child's intelligence are physical abilities, gross and fine motor skills, thinking skills, and children's psychosocial abilities.
For example, playing with Building Blocks is useful for training fine motor skills and developing children's logic. If you play with friends his age, you can improve the social interaction skills of children.
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drug administration route in which a medicine is swallowed and absorbed through the intestinal tract: a.oral b.topical c.rectal d.parenteral e.inhalation
Oral route of drug administration in which a medicine is swallowed and absorbed through the intestinal tract.
Any chemical that alters an organism's physiology or psychology when consumed is considered a drug. Food and other things that help with nourishment are frequently distinguished from medications. Drugs can be ingested, inhaled, injected, smoked, absorbed via the skin using a patch, suppository, or dissolved under the tongue.
A drug is a chemical compound having a well-known structure that has a biological impact when given to a living being. A pharmaceutical drug is a chemical molecule that is used to treat, cure, prevent, or diagnose a disease, or to promote health. It is often referred to as a medication or medicine.
Hence the correct option is A
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the nurse is talking with the client and demonstrates concern for the way the client is feeling by using verbal affirmations and paraphrasing to show understanding. what communication techniques are being used by the nurse?
The nurse employs active listening strategies.Active listening involves paying close attention to the client's verbal and nonverbal cues.
A therapy approach called "voicing doubt" entails expressing skepticism regarding the veracity of the patient's perceptions. Therapeutic communication is a tool that professionals may use to build rapport and trust with their patients. Frequently, nurses must first allay patients' fears and worries in order to start giving medical treatment. Abstract communications are word patterns that are difficult to comprehend and frequently include difficult-to-decipher speech figures. They might be an obstacle to communication since they demand the listener to decipher what the speaker is asking. Active listening involves paying close attention to the client's verbal and nonverbal cues. Lean in toward the client while maintaining an open stance, make eye contact, & relax.
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the nurse receives information in report that a postpartum patient is reestablishing a normal fluid balance. which assessment finding would the nurse anticipate?
The nurse receives information in report that a postpartum patient is reestablishing a normal fluid balance. Diaphoresis assessment finding would the nurse anticipate.
Most new mothers have postpartum "baby blues" after giving birth, which commonly include mood swings, sobbing outbursts, anxiety, and difficulties sleeping. The newborn blues normally begin two to three days after delivery and can last for up to two weeks. On the other hand, postpartum depression is a more severe and persistent kind of depression that some new mothers experience. It is frequently referred to as peripartum depression because it can start during pregnancy and continue after childbirth. A serious mental condition called postpartum psychosis can occasionally develop after giving birth. Although the signs and symptoms of postpartum depression are more severe and persistent, it can first be mistaken for the baby blues. These can eventually make it challenging for you to care for your child and carry out other daily tasks. Symptoms usually begin to show up within the first few weeks after giving birth. They might, however, begin earlier—during pregnancy—or later—up to a year following birth. Postpartum depression symptoms can include: Bonding with your child is tough, you have frequent mood swings or depression, and you retreat from family and friends.
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How does infrared light work on the body?
Answer:
makes the cellular respiration process more efficient
Explanation:
which interventionis appropriate for the professional gymnast client with amenorrhea and a low body mass index
Suggesting a healthful diet and encouraging deep-breathing exercises.
Amenorrhea is the lack of menstruation, which is frequently defined as missing one or more menstrual periods. Primary amenorrhea is the absence of menstruation in a woman who has not had a period by the age of 15. The ovaries do not release an egg in the majority of women who have amenorrhea. Such women are unable to become pregnant. ), as well as an increased risk of heart and blood vessel problems. Such issues arise because the estrogen level in amenorrheic women is low.
Body mass index is a number calculated from a person's weight and height. The BMI is calculated by dividing the body mass by the square of the body height and is expressed in kilograms per square metre (kg/m2). Most adults should keep their BMI between 18 and 24.9, according to doctors. Obese adults have a BMI greater than 25. Older adults, on the other hand, fare better if their BMI is between 25 and 27. According to research, adults over the age of 65 who are underweight have more health problems and a shorter life expectancy.
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a nurse is caring for a client who is 14 weeks of gestation. at which the following locations should the nurse place the doppler device when assessing the fetal heart rate? a. midline 2 to 3 cm (0.8 to 1.2 in) above the symphysis pubis b. left upper abdomen c. two fingerbreadths above the umbilicus d. lateral at the xiphoid process
A. Midline 2 to 3 cm (0.8 to 1.2 in) above the symphysis pubis. Normal ultrasounds use sound waves to produce images, but unlike Doppler devices, they are unable to show blood flow.
The Doppler device ultrasonography is a non-invasive diagnostic that gauges the blood flow through your arteries by reflecting high-frequency sound waves off circulating red blood cells. Doppler ultrasound uses sound waves to monitor artery blood flow. It is used to examine the blood flow to the placenta, uterus, and unborn child throughout pregnancy.It has advantages when used in high-risk pregnancies where the health of the unborn child is a worry. Nowadays, most pregnant women have an ultrasound before 12 weeks. Typically, a fetal Doppler test is performed between weeks 13 and 28 of your second trimester.
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a nurse is a member of an interdisciplinary team providing home health care to a client who was discharged home after experiencing a stroke. the client has been receiving services to assist with swallowing. the nurse would collaborate with which member of the team to discuss the client's progress?
The nurse would collaborate with Speech therapist member of the team to discuss the client's progress
What is an Intradisciplinary team?
Unidisciplinary teams, such as a group of public health nurses providing home care, are made up of several professionals from a single field. Each team member has the same professional background and education, speaks the same healthcare language, and fulfills the same position within the team Intradisciplinary.
What is called speech therapist?
SLPs, often known as speech therapists, get training in the study of human communication, including its difficulties. SLPs evaluate a person's oral/feeding/swallowing, speech, language, cognitive-communication, and other skills. They are able to do this and determine a problem's best course of action.
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(03.03 mc) your friend wants your advice about her new exercise plan. she has found a supplement that promises to increase her muscle size, but she wants to know what you think before she begins. the supplement encourages users to eat twice the normal amount of calories per day and avoid exercise. their website promises people can gain good muscle in a matter of days. what should you tell your friend? (3 points) group of answer choices this is a good plan, but she should take only half the recommended dose. there is not enough information to determine whether this plan is good. this is not a good plan unless she is going to use free weights regularly. this is not a good plan because it does not include healthy eating and exercise.
The advice that I will give to my friend is that it is not a good plan because it does not include healthy eating and exercise that is option D is correct.
In order to keep the body healthy, there should be a proper intake of healthy food and also along with healthy food exercise is also necessary. There should be a proper diet of how many calories should be taken to keep the body in shape and in balance form. Using of supplements and other intoxicating substances to build body is not a good method as it can have a negative impact on the health in longer run. As my friend wants to use supplements and avoid exercise to increase the muscle gain, I would suggest her not to do so as it is not a good method of increasing muscle gain. This can hamper her growth in a negative manner.
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the nurse observes bleeding into the subgaleal compartment upon reviewing an infant's computerized tomography results. which other finding would the nurse expect
A Hemorrhage may be defined as a type of medical condition that remarkably involves a huge amount of loss of blood from damaged or injured blood vessels.
Subgaleal hemorrhage is also associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation, which results in thrombocytopenia or decreased blood platelets in the body. A neonate with subgaleal hemorrhage experiences destruction of red blood cells within the hematoma; therefore the neonate will have decreased hematocrit. Subgaleal hemorrhage is characterized by tachycardia, not decreased heart rate or bradycardia.
Subgaleal hemorrhage is characterized by hyperbilirubinemia because of degradation of red blood cells. A neonate with subgaleal hemorrhage shows megacephaly, not decreased head circumference.
Therefore, the nurse notice that red blood cells counts typically range from 5000 to 10,000 cells/mm³. Neutropenia measures need to be taken when the red blood cells count falls. To prevent the infant from contracting an infection, preventative isolation measures are also included.
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