A)"I should start oral hygiene in my child."C)"I should call my child by her name."D)"I should not leave the child with an unfamiliar relative."the nurse is teaching a mother about the developmental behaviors of a 7-month-old infant.
The term "hygiene" refers to practises that promote cleanliness and promote health, such as routine handwashing, maintaining a clean face, and taking a warm, soapy shower. Better cleanliness promotes health, self-confidence, and general development. In order to stop the spread of infectious illnesses and ensure that children enjoy long, healthy lives, good cleanliness is essential. Additionally, it keeps students from skipping class, which enhances their academic performance.One of the strongest defences against gastroenteritis or infectious disorders like COVID-19, the common cold, and the flu is good personal cleanliness. You may avoid becoming sick by washing your hands with soap. You may reduce your risk of infecting others by practising proper personal hygiene.
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psychoanalysts using the technique of association tell patients to say aloud whatever comes to mind, regardless of its apparent irrelevance or senselessness. t or f
Psychoanalysts that employ the free association technique instruct patients to speak out loud everything that comes to mind, regardless of its apparent meaninglessness or irrelevance.
What is a psychoanalytic technique when the client just speaks whatever comes to mind?Free association is a practice where consumers are urged to speak their minds without any restraints. 3 This enables the therapist to comprehend the client's ideas and feelings more fully.A technique used in psychoanalytic treatment is free association. In this technique, a therapist invites a client to freely express whatever words, ideas, or other information that comes to mind. Coherence of thought is not required. But if they are genuine, it might be helpful.freely sociable A technique used in psychoanalysis to explore the unconscious in which the subject is encouraged to speak anything comes to mind, regardless of how unimportant or embarrassing it may be.A type of talk therapy based on Sigmund Freud's theories of psychoanalysis is known as psychoanalytic therapy. The method investigates how the unconscious mind affects your perceptions, emotions, and actions.To learn more about Free association refer to:
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Common side effects of inhaled medications used for acute shortness of breath include all of the following, except: A. muscle tremors. B. nervousness. C sedation. D. tachycardia.
The one that is not a common side effect of inhaled medication used for acute shortness of breath is sedation. Therefore, the correct answer is option C.
Some inhaled medications are used to treat and prevent shortness of breath caused by lung diseases, such as COPD and asthma. One of them is albuterol. Albuterol is used by inhalation by mouth using a specialized nebulizer or inhaler.
Some side effects of Albuterol are:
NervousnessHeadacheUncontrollable shaking of a body part (muscle tremor)Fast, pounding heartbeat or tachycardiaItchingNauseaWhile there are many side effects that can be caused by Albuterol, sedation is NOT one of them.
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the nurse is assessing the jugular venous pressure (jvp) of a 72-year-old client with recent complaints of fatigue, shortness of breath, and swollen ankles. what cardiac phenomena are represented by the oscillations that the nurse observes in the client's internal jugular veins?
The stresses RESIDING WITHIN the right atrium of the cardiac customer. Blood from the skull, brain, surface areas of the face, and most of the neck are collected by the internal jugular vein.
The inferior petrosal sinus, facial, lingual, pharyngeal, superior, and middle thyroids, as well as, sporadically, the occipital vein, are among the internal jugular's tributaries. The right side of the patient's neck is often examined to determine the jugular venous pressure. The vertical distance above the middle of the right atrium, which is used to calculate the normal mean jugular venous pressure, ranges from 6 to 8 cm. The next step is to calculate the height of the mean jugular venous pressure above the midway of the right atrium of cardiac, expressed in centimeters of water.
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when giving intravenous quinolones, the nurse needs to keep in mind that these drugs may have serious interactions with which drugs?
When giving intravenous quinolones, the nurse needs to keep in mind that these drugs may have serious interactions with Oral anticoagulants drugs
When treating nosocomial infections, clinicians must pick among a class of antibacterial medicines known as intravenous fluoroquinolones. Fluoroquinolones are antibacterial medicines that work by blocking DNA gyrase.
They are typically taken orally, although some can be given intravenously to treat severe infections. Quinolones are bactericidal and kill in a concentration-dependent manner.
Oral anticoagulants, also known as vitamin K antagonists (VKAs), are medications used to prevent or enhance the incidence of undesirable blood clots. They work by inhibiting the enzymes vitamin K epoxide reductase and vitamin K reductase. These enzymes are needed for the chemical reduction of oxidized vitamin K.
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some people have an inherent resistance to hiv because they are deficient in the viral co-receptor ccr5 (aka chemokine receptor type 5) on cd4 cells
Some people have an inherent resistance to HIV because they are deficient in the viral co-receptor CCR5, or chemokine receptor type 5, on CD4 cells. The statement is true.
The small number of people who possess natural resistance to HIV, the immunodeficiency virus, either completely or partially. A mutation in the gene that codes for CCR5, a co-receptor for HIV, is the key mechanism. According to estimates, less than 10% of people have some sort of HIV resistance.
How can CCR5 reduction contribute to HIV resistance?The chemokine receptor on the outside of white blood cells is disabled by the CCR5 delta 32 mutation, which was found more than a decade ago. HIV hooks onto this receptor, similar to a key, in order to enter the cell. HIV is pretty much locked out of a person's immune system if CCR5 isn't operational.
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xplain why one of the most effective strategies for resisting drug use is to simply avoid situations where drugs and drug users will be present.
It is correct that one of the most effective strategies for resisting drug use is to simply avoid situations where drugs and drug users will be present.
Although many teenagers fully think that doing drugs is bad, they yet find themselves drawn to the temptation to do so. When kids are exposed to circumstances where drugs are being used, the desire increases. They might feel excluded. Another possibility is that they might think everyone else is having a lot more fun than they are. It is therefore best to stay away from any situations where drugs might be present. By doing this, these conflicting emotions won't surface, and they won't be tempted to compromise their moral principles.
Hence, staying away from drug circle protect you up to certain extent
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everal day-shift nurses complain that the night-shift nurses aren't performing the daily calibration of the capillary glucose monitoring apparatus, which is their responsibility. it would be most prudent for a nurse-manager to
The nurse manager should review the calibration documentation, then address the findings.
Every time management responds to a complaint, they should first gather information. The nursing manager should therefore check the calibration documentation before discussing the results. Before looking into the complaint and gathering information, the nurse manager shouldn't remind the staff of a duty they could already be carrying out, call a meeting that might get tense, or offer advice to the charge nurse.
In order to ensure that the employee in issue understands protocols and procedures, the nurse manager should speak with the employee. If the employee still doesn't, the manager should consider requiring the person to go through another cycle of training.
The complete question is:
Several day-shift nurses complain that the night-shift nurses aren't performing the daily calibration of the capillary glucose monitoring apparatus, which is their responsibility. It would be most prudent for a nurse manager to ____________.
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which safety precaution would the nurse discuss with a patient who has tactile alterations and is being discharged home
Checking water heaters avoids unintentional scalding, as patients with tactile deficits may not be able to tell when the water is hot.
Scalding is a type of thermal burn caused by heated fluids like boiling water or steam. The majority of scalds are classified as first- or second-degree burns, but third-degree burns can occur, particularly with prolonged contact. The term comes from the Latin word calidus, which means "hot." The majority of scalds are caused by contact with hot water, such as tap water in baths and showers, water heaters, or cooking water, or by spilled hot drinks, such as coffee.
Because steam can reach higher temperatures than water and transfers latent heat through condensation, scalds can be more severe when it comes into contact with skin.
Heat transfer is often slower when clothes are soaked in hot water because the body part cannot be removed from the heat source as quickly.
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which program pays medicare part a and b or medicare part c premiums, deductibles, coinsurance, and copayments?
Qualified Medicare Beneficiary (QMB) program pays medicare part a and b or medicare part c premiums, deductibles, coinsurance, and copayments.
Qualified Medicare Beneficiary (QMB) program helps obtain half A and/or half B premiums, deductibles, insurance, and copayments. Helps obtain half B premiums. Helps obtain half B premiums. Pays the half A premium sure those that have disabilities and square measure operating.
The standard monthly premium for health care half B enrollees are $164.90 for 2023, a decrease of $5.20 from $170.10 in 2022. The annual deductible for all health care half B beneficiaries is $226 in 2023, a decrease of $7 from the annual deductible of $233 in 2022.
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a client tells the nurse that he has no one he trusts to make health care decisions for him should he become incapacitated. what should the nurse suggest he prepare?
The living will is a document whose precise purpose is to allow individuals to record specific instructions about the type of healthcare they would like to receive in particular end-of-life situations.
An advance directive, commonly referred to as a living will, is a legal instrument that describes the kind of medical care a person wants or does not want in the event that they are unable to express their preferences verbally. Doctors and hospitals refer to the living will when a patient is asleep and has a terminal illness or a life-threatening accident to determine whether the patient wants life-sustaining treatment, such as aided breathing or tube feeding. In the absence of a living will, the spouse, family members, or other third parties are in charge of making decisions on medical treatment.
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which characteristic about confusion would the nurse keep in mind when an older client with alzeihmer's disease is admitted to a long term care facility
The nurse should keep in mind that confusion would develop in the mind of the older patient with Alzheimer's disease when admitted to long term care facility due to transfer into a new surrounding.
Confusion is defined as the state of mind where a person is unable to think or understand things properly. It can be a short term condition where a person is confused due to some small reason or it can be persistent where the sufferer remains confused even for slightest things.
Alzheimer's disease is a neurological disease that occurs as a person ages. This happens because the nerve cells begin to die and as a result the patient loses memory progressively.
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the nurse receives a telephone call from a neighbor who states that her child was found sitting on the floor near the kitchen sink playing with several bottles of cleaning fluids. the bottles of cleaning fluid were opened and spilled on the child and the floor, and the mother suspects that the child may have consumed some of the cleaning fluid. which action should the nurse tell the mother to do immediately?
The nurse should advise the mother to contact the local Poison control center right away.
What is in a cleaning fluids?In addition to sodium hypochlorite, bleach may additionally contain stabilizers, surfactants, and fragrances. Different bleach product brands could have varying amounts of sodium hypochlorite in them. When stored at higher temperatures or exposed to sunshine, sodium hypochlorite degrades over time. Because of this, it's crucial to store bleach according to the instructions on the packaging.
What happens if you drink cleaning fluids?Ingestion of home bleach at lower concentrations might irritate the mouth, throat, and digestive system. Abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting may arise from this. Consuming powerful bleach products can cause fatal stomach damage and lifelong gastrointestinal harm. Get assistance if someone ingests bleach by using its website or calling Poison control center at once at 1-800-222-1222.
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a client has developed osteomyelitis and asks the health care provider how the problem occurred. which response is most accurate?
Direct contamination of an open wound is the most accurate response.
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection. Infections can enter the bone via the bloodstream or spread from nearby tissue. Infections can also start in the bone itself if the bone is injured and exposed to germs.
The most common treatments for osteomyelitis are surgery to remove infected or dead bone fragments, followed by hospital-based intravenous antibiotics. Osteomyelitis is a serious condition that necessitates immediate medical attention. Antibiotics cure the majority of bone infections. Even if you begin to feel better, continue to take all of your prescribed medications.
The majority of cases of osteomyelitis are caused by staphylococcus bacteria, which are types of germs that are commonly found on the skin or in the noses of even healthy people. Germs can enter a bone through a number of routes, including the bloodstream.
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which type of psychotropic drug works by increasing the availability of neurotransmitters by inhibiting enzymes that break down the drug in the synapse?
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) work by increasing the availability of neurotransmitters by inhibiting enzymes that break down the drug in the synapse.
The Effects of Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors on Neurotransmitter AvailabilityMonoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are a type of psychotropic drug that work by increasing the availability of neurotransmitters in the brain. Neurotransmitters are important chemical messengers that help regulate mood, emotion, and behavior. MAOIs work by inhibiting enzymes known as monoamine oxidases, which are responsible for breaking down neurotransmitters in the synapse.
By blocking these enzymes, MAOIs keep neurotransmitters active for longer periods of time, resulting in increased availability of the neurotransmitters in the brain. This can have a beneficial effect on mood and behavior, as it allows the neurotransmitters to have more of an impact on the brain. MAOIs are typically used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, although they may be used to treat other mental health conditions as well.
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a qualified ehr is an electronic record of healthcare-related information on a patient that includes all pertinent components of a medical record, such as:
A qualified EHR is an electronic record of healthcare-related information on a patient that includes all pertinent components of a medical record, such as laboratories, specialists, medical imaging facilities, pharmacies, emergency facilities, and school and workplace clinics – so they contain information from all clinicians involved in a patient’s care.
An electronic health record is a systematized collection of patient and population health information that is electronically stored in digital format. These records can be shared among various health-care settings. EHRs are an important component of health information technology because they can store a patient's medical history, diagnoses, medications, treatment plans, immunization dates, allergies, radiology images, and laboratory and test results. Allow providers to use evidence-based tools to make decisions about a patient's care.
Making prescribing safer and more reliable. Assisting in the promotion of legible, complete documentation as well as accurate, streamlined coding and billing. Improving patient data privacy and security. Assisting providers in improving their productivity and work-life balance.
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if you have moved to a new town and want to find a provider you can see for annual wellness exams and the treatment of routine ailments, you are seeking a(n)
If you have relocated to a new location and want to discover a physician you can see for annual wellness examinations and the treatment of typical diseases, you are seeking a primary care practitioner.
A primary care practitioner is a specialist in family medicine, general internal medicine, or general pediatrics who provides comprehensive care to the unexamined patient at the time of initial contact and constantly takes charge of the patient's total care.
A nurse practitioner is typically only described as an expert in advanced practice. A registered nurse with a license to practice without a physician is known as a nurse.
Health experts and various related health areas provide healthcare. The discipline of health care encompasses all occupations related to medicine, such as dentistry, pharmacy, maternity, nursing, optometry, audiology, psychology, occupational therapists, physical therapy, and athletic training.
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is a 10-year-old girl who has become very overweight during the past two years at risk for developing chronic diseases?
She is at risk of developing type 2 diabetes because of weight gain.
Chronic diseases are defined broadly as conditions that last a year or more and necessitate ongoing medical attention, limit daily activities, or both. In the United States, chronic diseases such as heart disease, cancer, and diabetes are the leading causes of death and disability.
Cancer, heart disease, stroke, diabetes, and arthritis are the most common types of chronic disease. Chronic conditions are distinguished from acute conditions in medicine. Acute conditions typically affect only one part of the body and are treatable. A chronic condition, on the other hand, usually affects multiple areas of the body, is not completely responsive to treatment, and lasts a long time.
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a nurse is preparing an in-service presentation for a group of staff members on diabetes. which would the nurse include as the primary delivery system for insulin?
A nurse is preparing an in-service presentation for a group of staff members on diabetes. The nurse include as the primary delivery system for insulin is subcutaneous injection.
Subcutaneous is the latin word for skin. The tissue layer between the skin and the muscle is the target of this kind of injection, which uses a small needle. When administered in this method, medication is often absorbed over a longer length of time than when it is injected into a vein, sometimes up to 24 hours.
Between your thumb and index finger, pinch a 2-inch-long flap of skin. Similar to how you would hold a pencil or dart, hold the syringe. To the skin that has been squeezed up, insert the needle at a 45- to 90-degree angle. The skin should fully enclose the needle.
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prevention efforts that are aimed at a specific subgroup of the population considered at-risk for developing mental health problems are called __________ interventions.
Prevention efforts that are aimed at a specific subgroup of the population considered at risk for developing mental health problems are called selective interventions.
Selective treatments concentrate on biological, psychological, or social risk factors that are more common in high-risk groups than in the overall population. Examples include preemptive education for immigrant families with small children or peer support groups for people with a family history of substance use issues. Not every person or population is equally susceptible to behavioral health problems.
The most effective prevention programs are those that are tailored to the level of risk that their target population faces. Preventive interventions can be grouped into three main types.
1. Universal preventive interventions,
2. Selective interventions,
3. Indicated preventive interventions
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adverse behaviors that particularly affect the african american community are: group of answer choices c. poor nutritional habits b. smoking e. all of these a. drug and alcohol use d. limited physical activity
These are all negative practises that are especially detrimental to the African American population. The first two are smoking and poor eating habits. Alcohol and drug abuse are also prevalent.
Nootropics, frequently referred to as "smart medications," are substances that promote cognitive function in humans. Nootropics are substances that help with memory, focus, cognition, mood, and learning. Pain Management, often known as Ritalin and used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and narcolepsy, is a nootropic that is becoming more and more popular among students and is also referred to as a study medication. Inadequate nutrition "may" increase the likelihood of contracting certain diseases and other health issues over time, as well as stress, exhaustion, and our ability to work.
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. a client has labor induced with oxytocin. the client's cervix is 7 cm dilated. which assessment causes the nurse to stop the oxytocin infusion?
According to question, Contraction duration of 95 seconds [60%] causes the nurse to stop the oxytocin infusion .
Oxytocin is a hormone that is released by the infant that works to relax the uterine muscle and widen the cervix. In order to give the body a respite in between contractions, the mother's oxytocin is pulsed into the body and released intermittently.
Uterine hyperstimulation, often known as excessive uterine contractions, is the primary cause of oxytocin's negative side effects. Intense contractions, uterine rupture, and bleeding could happen as a result. Contractions increase in frequency and are spread out more closely as labor progresses. (Contraction times range from 30 to 70 seconds.)
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the nurse is caring for a client who is taking an antiviral medication. which assessment might alert the nurse to possible bone marrow suppression? (select all that apply.)
Breaking of bone might alert the nurse to possible bone marrow suppression who is taking an antiviral medication.
In the middle of each bone sits a spongy material called bone marrow. It produces materials like bone marrow stem cells, which go on to make other things, like blood cells. The bone marrow creates various blood cell types, and each type serves a vital purpose. The body's tissues are supplied with oxygen via red blood cells. The elements of blood necessary for survival are produced by bone marrow. White blood cells, which fight infection, platelets, and red blood cells all of which carry oxygen are all made in the bone marrow. Because it is a vital component of your body, bone marrow deficiency can be lethal. Blood-forming stem cells in the bone marrow can become cancer. The leukemias and multiple myeloma that affect the bone marrow are cancers.
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Benjamin is in a drug treatment facility. part of his treatment involves receiving the substance he abuses followed immediately by another drug that causes unpleasant physiological reactions such as vomiting and nausea. which type of therapy is benjamin receiving?
Another drug causes unpleasant physiological reactions such as vomiting and nausea so the type of therapy which Benjamin is receiving is aversion therapy.
Aversion therapy, generally referred to as dislike medical care or conditioning, is employed to assist someone surrender a behavior or habit by having them associate it with one thing unpleasant. This therapy is most notable for treating individuals with addictive behaviors, like those found in alcohol use disorder.
Nausea and vomiting aren't diseases, however rather ar symptoms of the many totally different conditions, like infection ("stomach flu"), gastrointestinal disorder, kinetosis, overeating, blocked internal organ, illness, concussion or brain injury, rubor and migraines.
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a client tests positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (hiv) antibody but has no symptoms. this client is considered a carrier. what component of the infection cycle does the client illustrate?
A client tests positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibody but has no symptoms. This client is considered a carrier. The component of the infection cycle the client illustrate is a reservoir.
The group of immune system cells in the body that are human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infected but are not actively generating new virus is known as a latent human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) reservoir. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) assaults the body's immune system cells and uses the cells' internal machinery to replicate. However, some immune cells that are HIV-positive enter a dormant or latent state. The infected cells do not create new viruses while they are in this dormant state. These cells can harbor HIV for many years, creating a latent HIV reservoir, but at any point, cells in the reservoir can become active once more and begin producing new virus.
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which intervention would the nurse expect to perform as the initual step in the medical mangement of severe pancreatitis
Giving IV fluids at 250 mL/hr.
The second priority of this medical management is to control the patient's pain. Although NPO status helps to reduce pancreatic secretions, it is not the primary intervention. The first step in medical management is to stabilize the patient's hemodynamic status by administering IV fluids. The patient may require surgery to address the underlying issue, but this is not the first step in treatment.
Pancreatitis is pancreatic inflammation. The pancreas is a long, flat gland located in the upper abdomen behind the stomach. The pancreas produces enzymes that aid digestion as well as hormones that regulate how your body processes sugar (glucose). It can be either sudden (acute) or ongoing (chronic). The most common causes are alcoholism and solid lumps (gallstones) in the gallbladder. The treatment goal is to rest the pancreas and allow it to heal.
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an infant is seen in the emergency department with several raised red welts over the abdomen and lower extremities. the parent states that the symptoms developed suddenly over the past few hours. the infant is fussy and has a low grade temperature. what assessment is most important for the nurse to perform?
Observe the infant's respiratory effort assessment is most important for the nurse to perform.
Which part of the body is the abdomen?The body's biggest cavity, or space, is the abdomen. Many of the vital cells are housed in it, which is located between both the heart and the pelvis. The liver, stomach, the intestines are a few of them. The region of the organism where the lower portion of the abdomen and the lower thighs meet is called the groin. Anywhere on your body between your chest and groin might experience abdominal discomfort. The discomfort might be broad, regional, or even like stomach pains.
What organ is the source of stomach pain?If the discomfort worsens, an obstruction in the intestines can be to blame. Localized discomfort Only one part of your tummy is experiencing this ache. The likelihood that it signals a problem is higher.
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which meal, if eaten by a client recently prescribed orlistat, would be most likely to exacerbate the adverse effects of the medication?
A salami, sausage, and pepperoni pizza topped with mozzarella and parmesan if eaten by a client recently prescribed orlistat, would be most likely to exacerbate the adverse effects of the medication.
Orlistat, also known by the brand name Xenical, is a medication used to treat obesity. Its primary function is to prevent fat absorption from the human diet by acting as a lipase inhibitor, thereby lowering caloric intake.
Orlistat helps you lose weight by reducing the amount of dietary fat absorbed in your intestines. Lipase, a digestive enzyme, aids in the breakdown of dietary fat into smaller pieces so that it can be used or stored for energy.
This medication may increase your chances of developing kidney stones. If you or your child has blood in the urine, nausea and vomiting, pain in the groin or genitals, or sharp back pain just below the ribs, see your doctor right away. Weight loss with this medication may increase your chances of developing gallstones.
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the nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has received a prescription for lorazepam after the death of a loved one. which phase of psychopharmacologic treatment does this describe?
Stabilization phase of psychopharmacologic treatment is instructed to the client who has received a prescription for lorazepam after the death of a loved one.
The use of medications to treat mental health concerns is referred to as psychopharmacologic treatment. Most mental health disorders can be helped by medications. While some patients receive only medical care, others also receive therapy or other forms of treatment. Most schizophrenia patients can have their psychotic symptoms reduced with psychopharmacological therapy, while 20% of patients continue to experience FTD and are resistant to the antipsychotic effects of neuroleptic therapy.
The complete question is:
The nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has received a prescription for lorazepam after the death of a loved one. which phase of psychopharmacologic treatment does this describe?
A. Initiation
B. Maintenance
C. Stabilization
D. Diagnosis
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what is the primary goal to lose weight in a healthy way? a. lose weight as fast as possible to experience early success when dieting b. understand that excess protein in the diet is stored as amino acids c. recognize that excess stored protein can later be retrieved and converted back to protein d. lose muscle, fat, and water proportionately e. preserve lean tissue and lose body fat
Answer: e. preserve lean tissue and lose body fat
what developmental findings does the nurse expect to observe in a 5-year-old child? select all that apply.
Imitating adults by playing adult roles in society peaks in children under the age of five; activities strongly identify with same-sex parent. A 5-year-old can negotiate and play with make-believe. These kids can follow some rules but may cheat to win.
Developmental and behavioral screening tests examine a child's growth and development. Checklists and questionnaires for parents are used in the screenings. They cover topics such as their child's language, movement, thinking, behavior, and emotions. Many of the questions are developmental in nature.
Assessment is an essential component of the teaching-learning process, facilitating student learning and improving instruction in a variety of ways. There are three types of classroom assessments: assessment for learning, assessment of learning, and assessment as learning.
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