Phenazopyridine .Phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic prescribed to relieve discomfort associated with UTI.
Phenazopyridine helps to reduce the symptoms of pain, burning, and rapid gastrointestinal irritation. Treatment is symptomatic and does not address the cause of the symptoms. But it is used to relieve the symptoms of distress where other drugs are affected. Pyridium is not a cure for UTI. The urologist will prescribe antibiotics if there is an infection. The duration of treatment with Pyridium should not exceed 5 days, unless advised by a urologist. Treatment with phenazopyridine may cause abnormal results in urine tests.
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kris has recently been diagnosed with adhd. based on current treatment practices, which two treatment modalities are most likely to be applied? group of answer choices
Kris has recently been diagnosed with ADHD. Based on current treatment practices, drug therapy and cognitive behavioral therapy treatment modalities are most likely to be applied.
In order to give a "whole-patient" approach to the treatment of drug use disorders, medication-assisted therapy (MAT) uses pharmaceuticals in conjunction with counselling and behavioral treatments. Drugs are used to cure infections, soothe symptoms, lessen the likelihood of developing new illnesses, and even kill certain cells, as in chemotherapy for cancer.
Research has demonstrated that drug abuse treatment programmes are successful and that recovery is a realistic goal, despite the fact that effectiveness rates might vary. There is evidence that treatment can enhance social and physical well-being while reducing drug usage.
The above question is incorrect, the correct question is :
Kris has recently been diagnosed with ADHD. Based on current treatment practices which two treatment modalities are MOST likely to be applied?
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some people have an inherent resistance to hiv because they are deficient in the viral co-receptor ccr5 (aka chemokine receptor type 5) on cd4 cells
Some people have an inherent resistance to HIV because they are deficient in the viral co-receptor CCR5, or chemokine receptor type 5, on CD4 cells. The statement is true.
The small number of people who possess natural resistance to HIV, the immunodeficiency virus, either completely or partially. A mutation in the gene that codes for CCR5, a co-receptor for HIV, is the key mechanism. According to estimates, less than 10% of people have some sort of HIV resistance.
How can CCR5 reduction contribute to HIV resistance?The chemokine receptor on the outside of white blood cells is disabled by the CCR5 delta 32 mutation, which was found more than a decade ago. HIV hooks onto this receptor, similar to a key, in order to enter the cell. HIV is pretty much locked out of a person's immune system if CCR5 isn't operational.
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xplain why one of the most effective strategies for resisting drug use is to simply avoid situations where drugs and drug users will be present.
It is correct that one of the most effective strategies for resisting drug use is to simply avoid situations where drugs and drug users will be present.
Although many teenagers fully think that doing drugs is bad, they yet find themselves drawn to the temptation to do so. When kids are exposed to circumstances where drugs are being used, the desire increases. They might feel excluded. Another possibility is that they might think everyone else is having a lot more fun than they are. It is therefore best to stay away from any situations where drugs might be present. By doing this, these conflicting emotions won't surface, and they won't be tempted to compromise their moral principles.
Hence, staying away from drug circle protect you up to certain extent
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which term is used to describe the reaction when a patient hospitalized with pneumonia and experiencing delirium
Illusion is used to describe the reaction when a patient hospitalized with pneumonia and experiencing delirium.
Pneumonia is a lung inflammatory disease that primarily affects the small air sacs known as alveoli. Typical symptoms include a productive or dry cough, chest pain, fever, and difficulty breathing. The degree of severity of the condition varies.
Infection with viruses or bacteria, and less commonly with other microorganisms, causes pneumonia. Identifying the pathogen responsible can be difficult. Symptoms and physical examination are frequently used to make a diagnosis. Chest X-rays, blood tests, and sputum culture may be used to confirm the diagnosis. The disease can be classified based on where it was acquired, such as community- or hospital-acquired pneumonia, or pneumonia associated with healthcare.
Delirium is a serious mental impairment. It leads to muddled thinking and a lack of awareness of one's surroundings. The disorder usually manifests itself quickly, within hours or days. Delirium is frequently caused by one or more factors.
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a physician prepares to deliver medication via epidural injection. what structures/spaces does the needle pass in order to enter the epidural space? select all that apply.
The lumbar puncture needle penetrates the skin, subcutaneous tissue, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum, epidural space with internal vertebral venous plexus, dura mater, arachnoid, and finally subarachnoid space.
A lumbar puncture also referred to as a spinal tap, is a diagnostic procedure used to pinpoint particular illnesses.
It takes place in the lumbar region of the lower back. In a spinal tap, a needle is inserted between two hip bones to obtain a sample of cerebrospinal fluid (vertebrae).
The brain and spinal cord are protected from damage by the material that surrounds them.
The identification of serious disorders like meningitis can be aided by a spinal tap. hemorrhage, tumors of the brain or spinal cord, multiple sclerosis, Guillain-Barré syndrome, and other conditions affecting the central nervous system.
Using a spinal tap, anesthetics or chemotherapy drugs can be delivered into the cerebrospinal fluid.
The complete question is:
A physician prepares to deliver medication via epidural injection. what structures/spaces does the needle pass in order to enter the epidural space? select all that apply.
Options are: skin, subcutaneous tissue, supraspinous ligament, interspinous ligament, ligamentum flavum, epidural space with internal vertebral venous plexus, dura mater, arachnoid, and subarachnoid space.
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an adult client is receiving hepatitis b (engerix-b) injections. the nurse anticipates that the client will receive these injections on which schedule?
An adult client is receiving hepatitis b (Engerix-b) injections. the nurse anticipates that the client will receive these injections in Three doses, with the second dose 30 days after the first and the final dose 6 months after the first.
The hepatitis B virus, which may be prevented by vaccination, causes hepatitis B, a liver illness (HBV). When blood, semen, or other bodily fluids from a person infected with the virus enter the body of a person who is not affected, hepatitis B can be transmitted.
A severe hepatitis B viral infection of the liver that is easily avoidable with a vaccination. Most frequently, exposure to body fluids that are contaminated spreads this illness. The symptoms might vary and include eye yellowing, stomach ache, and black urine. Some people don't show any symptoms, especially young children.
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the nurse is caring for a client who is taking an antiviral medication. which assessment might alert the nurse to possible bone marrow suppression? (select all that apply.)
Breaking of bone might alert the nurse to possible bone marrow suppression who is taking an antiviral medication.
In the middle of each bone sits a spongy material called bone marrow. It produces materials like bone marrow stem cells, which go on to make other things, like blood cells. The bone marrow creates various blood cell types, and each type serves a vital purpose. The body's tissues are supplied with oxygen via red blood cells. The elements of blood necessary for survival are produced by bone marrow. White blood cells, which fight infection, platelets, and red blood cells all of which carry oxygen are all made in the bone marrow. Because it is a vital component of your body, bone marrow deficiency can be lethal. Blood-forming stem cells in the bone marrow can become cancer. The leukemias and multiple myeloma that affect the bone marrow are cancers.
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called by family for mother. 68 mother. confused. headache for 2 days. right side of forehead bruise. fell a week ago in church. which type of injury?
The signs of a concussion may be diffused and might not show up right away. signs can be remaining for days, weeks, or maybe longer. common signs after a concussive stressful brain-type of injury are headache, loss of reminiscence (amnesia), and confusion. Intracranial hematomas (brain bruising and bleeding)
Confusion Unequal scholar length. Slurred speech. lack of movement (paralysis) on the opposite side of the body from the head harm persistent post-concussive signs and symptoms — also known as a publish-concussion syndrome — occur whilst signs of mild annoying mind harm remain longer than anticipated after damage. these signs and symptoms may additionally encompass headaches, dizziness, and issues with awareness and reminiscence. they can be closing weeks to months.
Intracranial hematomas (brain bruising and bleeding) may also arise after hitting your head. The force of the effect often ruptures the brain’s delicate blood vessels, causing blood to fill the intracranial area. without anywhere else to move, the blood compresses the mind, killing mind cells by way of reducing their blood-oxygen delivery. sufferers may additionally be afflicted by inner mind bleeding without any external accidents, lost focus, or skull damage. spotting the signs and symptoms of brain bleeding after hitting your head should keep your existence.
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a home health nurse is caring for a mexican-american client who has been discharged from the hospital post myocardial infarction. while the nurse is at the house, a curandero is also at the home at the request of family members. what is the best action of the nurse?
The best action for the nurse when caring for a client who has been discharged from the hospital after a myocardial infarction is to check health regularly, help the client to have a healthy diet with balanced calories, and ask the family not to smoke around the client.
What is myocardial infarction?A myocardial infarction is a heart attack in which the blood supply to the heart is obstructed due to blood clots or a buildup of fat, cholesterol, and other elements.
The symptoms you will experience are:
Typical chest pain occurs continuously as if a heavy object is pressing down on it and does not improve for 30-60 minutes, located below the sternum with radiating to the left arm, upper back, neck, the lower jaw.Nausea and vomiting.Hard to breathe.Hizzy.Tired.A cold sweat.A feeling of pounding in the chestLearn more about factors that cause heart attacks here :
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a client with nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea for the past three days has been prescribed one liter of normal saline with 40 meq (40 mmol/l) of potassium chloride to infuse at 250 ml per hour. which assessment would the nurse report to the primary healthcare provider prior to initiating the infusion?
Urinary output of 148 mL for the past 6 hours ssessment would the nurse report to the primary healthcare provider prior to initiating the infusion.
Diarrhoea is defined as having looser or more frequent feces than usual. Most individuals experience it sometimes, and it's often nothing to worry about. However, until it goes, which often takes a few days to a week, it can be upsetting and uncomfortable.
What are the main causes of diarrhea?
Diarrhea may be caused by many things, including:
A bacterial infection.A virus.Trouble digesting certain things (food intolerance)Food allergy (such as celiac disease, gluten allergy)Parasites that enter the body through food or water.A reaction to medicines.An intestinal disease, such as inflammatory bowel disease.Learn more about diarrhea to visit this link
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. a client has labor induced with oxytocin. the client's cervix is 7 cm dilated. which assessment causes the nurse to stop the oxytocin infusion?
According to question, Contraction duration of 95 seconds [60%] causes the nurse to stop the oxytocin infusion .
Oxytocin is a hormone that is released by the infant that works to relax the uterine muscle and widen the cervix. In order to give the body a respite in between contractions, the mother's oxytocin is pulsed into the body and released intermittently.
Uterine hyperstimulation, often known as excessive uterine contractions, is the primary cause of oxytocin's negative side effects. Intense contractions, uterine rupture, and bleeding could happen as a result. Contractions increase in frequency and are spread out more closely as labor progresses. (Contraction times range from 30 to 70 seconds.)
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a client tells the nurse that he has no one he trusts to make health care decisions for him should he become incapacitated. what should the nurse suggest he prepare?
The living will is a document whose precise purpose is to allow individuals to record specific instructions about the type of healthcare they would like to receive in particular end-of-life situations.
An advance directive, commonly referred to as a living will, is a legal instrument that describes the kind of medical care a person wants or does not want in the event that they are unable to express their preferences verbally. Doctors and hospitals refer to the living will when a patient is asleep and has a terminal illness or a life-threatening accident to determine whether the patient wants life-sustaining treatment, such as aided breathing or tube feeding. In the absence of a living will, the spouse, family members, or other third parties are in charge of making decisions on medical treatment.
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which condition is associated with intermittent uterine contractions 24 hours after delivery in a multiparous postpartum patient?
Afterpains condition is associated with intermittent uterine contractions 24 hours after delivery in a multiparous postpartum patient.
The postpartum period, also known as the puerperium and the "fourth trimester," is the time after birth when the physiologic changes associated with pregnancy are reversed.
The postpartum period is divided into three distinct stages: the acute phase (8-19 hours after childbirth), the subacute postpartum period (two to six weeks), and the delayed postpartum period (up to eight months).
Uterine contractions are uterine smooth muscle contractions that occur during the menstrual cycle and labor. Uterine contractions occur throughout the menstrual cycle in the non-pregnant state as well as during pregnancy.
When the pituitary gland releases the hormone oxytocin, contractions begin. This causes the uterine muscles to begin tightening and relaxing. Contraction causes the top of the uterus to tighten in order to push the baby down.
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the nurse is assessing the jugular venous pressure (jvp) of a 72-year-old client with recent complaints of fatigue, shortness of breath, and swollen ankles. what cardiac phenomena are represented by the oscillations that the nurse observes in the client's internal jugular veins?
The stresses RESIDING WITHIN the right atrium of the cardiac customer. Blood from the skull, brain, surface areas of the face, and most of the neck are collected by the internal jugular vein.
The inferior petrosal sinus, facial, lingual, pharyngeal, superior, and middle thyroids, as well as, sporadically, the occipital vein, are among the internal jugular's tributaries. The right side of the patient's neck is often examined to determine the jugular venous pressure. The vertical distance above the middle of the right atrium, which is used to calculate the normal mean jugular venous pressure, ranges from 6 to 8 cm. The next step is to calculate the height of the mean jugular venous pressure above the midway of the right atrium of cardiac, expressed in centimeters of water.
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Which type of adverse effect is most likely to be reported as part of the spontaneous reporting system?
Dramatic situations appear shortly after the medicine is administered yet are uncommon in clinical practice without the substance.
What is a spontaneous reporting system?The Food and Drug Administration is known by the abbreviation FDA, approve foods and drugs in the United States.
This organization is in charge of overseeing the American food and medicine manufacturing and approval processes.
Therefore, the sponsor is required to notify the FDA if any unexpected adverse device effects are evaluated.
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an infant is seen in the emergency department with several raised red welts over the abdomen and lower extremities. the parent states that the symptoms developed suddenly over the past few hours. the infant is fussy and has a low grade temperature. what assessment is most important for the nurse to perform?
Observe the infant's respiratory effort assessment is most important for the nurse to perform.
Which part of the body is the abdomen?The body's biggest cavity, or space, is the abdomen. Many of the vital cells are housed in it, which is located between both the heart and the pelvis. The liver, stomach, the intestines are a few of them. The region of the organism where the lower portion of the abdomen and the lower thighs meet is called the groin. Anywhere on your body between your chest and groin might experience abdominal discomfort. The discomfort might be broad, regional, or even like stomach pains.
What organ is the source of stomach pain?If the discomfort worsens, an obstruction in the intestines can be to blame. Localized discomfort Only one part of your tummy is experiencing this ache. The likelihood that it signals a problem is higher.
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what developmental findings does the nurse expect to observe in a 5-year-old child? select all that apply.
Imitating adults by playing adult roles in society peaks in children under the age of five; activities strongly identify with same-sex parent. A 5-year-old can negotiate and play with make-believe. These kids can follow some rules but may cheat to win.
Developmental and behavioral screening tests examine a child's growth and development. Checklists and questionnaires for parents are used in the screenings. They cover topics such as their child's language, movement, thinking, behavior, and emotions. Many of the questions are developmental in nature.
Assessment is an essential component of the teaching-learning process, facilitating student learning and improving instruction in a variety of ways. There are three types of classroom assessments: assessment for learning, assessment of learning, and assessment as learning.
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the nurse receives a telephone call from a neighbor who states that her child was found sitting on the floor near the kitchen sink playing with several bottles of cleaning fluids. the bottles of cleaning fluid were opened and spilled on the child and the floor, and the mother suspects that the child may have consumed some of the cleaning fluid. which action should the nurse tell the mother to do immediately?
The nurse should advise the mother to contact the local Poison control center right away.
What is in a cleaning fluids?In addition to sodium hypochlorite, bleach may additionally contain stabilizers, surfactants, and fragrances. Different bleach product brands could have varying amounts of sodium hypochlorite in them. When stored at higher temperatures or exposed to sunshine, sodium hypochlorite degrades over time. Because of this, it's crucial to store bleach according to the instructions on the packaging.
What happens if you drink cleaning fluids?Ingestion of home bleach at lower concentrations might irritate the mouth, throat, and digestive system. Abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting may arise from this. Consuming powerful bleach products can cause fatal stomach damage and lifelong gastrointestinal harm. Get assistance if someone ingests bleach by using its website or calling Poison control center at once at 1-800-222-1222.
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the nurse is assisting in the care of a client during surgery. the nurse will be prepared to administer which drug if the client develops malignant hyperthermia?
Dantrolene sodium is the drug that helps the client to develop malignant hyperthermia.
A severe reaction to some anaesthetic medications is malignant hyperthermia. A dangerously high body temperature, tight muscles or spasms, a quick heartbeat, and other symptoms are frequently present in this severe reaction. Malignant hyperthermia-related consequences might be lethal if they are not promptly treated.The gene that increases your risk of developing malignant hyperthermia is often inherited, but it can occasionally arise as the result of a chance genetic mutation. You can find out if you have a gene that's affected by testing genetically. The name of this inherited condition is malignant hyperthermia susceptibility (MHS).When you have MHS, a genetic illness brought on by a gene alteration, you may experience malignant hyperthermia (mutation). When you are exposed to specific anaesthetic medicines that cause a response, the damaged gene increases your risk of developing malignant hyperthermia. Most frequently, the affected gene is inherited, typically from one parent who also carries it. Less frequently, the damaged gene arises from a chance gene alteration rather than being inherited.
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which safety precaution would the nurse discuss with a patient who has tactile alterations and is being discharged home
Checking water heaters avoids unintentional scalding, as patients with tactile deficits may not be able to tell when the water is hot.
Scalding is a type of thermal burn caused by heated fluids like boiling water or steam. The majority of scalds are classified as first- or second-degree burns, but third-degree burns can occur, particularly with prolonged contact. The term comes from the Latin word calidus, which means "hot." The majority of scalds are caused by contact with hot water, such as tap water in baths and showers, water heaters, or cooking water, or by spilled hot drinks, such as coffee.
Because steam can reach higher temperatures than water and transfers latent heat through condensation, scalds can be more severe when it comes into contact with skin.
Heat transfer is often slower when clothes are soaked in hot water because the body part cannot be removed from the heat source as quickly.
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which characteristic about confusion would the nurse keep in mind when an older client with alzeihmer's disease is admitted to a long term care facility
The nurse should keep in mind that confusion would develop in the mind of the older patient with Alzheimer's disease when admitted to long term care facility due to transfer into a new surrounding.
Confusion is defined as the state of mind where a person is unable to think or understand things properly. It can be a short term condition where a person is confused due to some small reason or it can be persistent where the sufferer remains confused even for slightest things.
Alzheimer's disease is a neurological disease that occurs as a person ages. This happens because the nerve cells begin to die and as a result the patient loses memory progressively.
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the nurse is obtaining a health history on a woman of childbearing age who wants to become pregnant. what information in her health history places her at high risk for having a child with a myelomeningocele?
Information in her health history places her at greatest risk because having a child with myelomeningocele is a history of seizure disorder; taking phenobarbital.
Technically, women can get pregnant and bear children from puberty when they start getting menopause to when they stop getting menopause. The average female reproductive age is between the ages of 12 and 51. Myelomeningoceles are when the spinal cord and spinal cord do not form properly during early development, a condition known as spina bifida. Myelomeningoceles is the most severe form of spina bifida. It happens when parts of the spinal cord and the nerve come out through the open part of the spine. This leads to damage to the spinal cord and spinal nerves and other disabilities.
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Benjamin is in a drug treatment facility. part of his treatment involves receiving the substance he abuses followed immediately by another drug that causes unpleasant physiological reactions such as vomiting and nausea. which type of therapy is benjamin receiving?
Another drug causes unpleasant physiological reactions such as vomiting and nausea so the type of therapy which Benjamin is receiving is aversion therapy.
Aversion therapy, generally referred to as dislike medical care or conditioning, is employed to assist someone surrender a behavior or habit by having them associate it with one thing unpleasant. This therapy is most notable for treating individuals with addictive behaviors, like those found in alcohol use disorder.
Nausea and vomiting aren't diseases, however rather ar symptoms of the many totally different conditions, like infection ("stomach flu"), gastrointestinal disorder, kinetosis, overeating, blocked internal organ, illness, concussion or brain injury, rubor and migraines.
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adverse behaviors that particularly affect the african american community are: group of answer choices c. poor nutritional habits b. smoking e. all of these a. drug and alcohol use d. limited physical activity
These are all negative practises that are especially detrimental to the African American population. The first two are smoking and poor eating habits. Alcohol and drug abuse are also prevalent.
Nootropics, frequently referred to as "smart medications," are substances that promote cognitive function in humans. Nootropics are substances that help with memory, focus, cognition, mood, and learning. Pain Management, often known as Ritalin and used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and narcolepsy, is a nootropic that is becoming more and more popular among students and is also referred to as a study medication. Inadequate nutrition "may" increase the likelihood of contracting certain diseases and other health issues over time, as well as stress, exhaustion, and our ability to work.
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a 26-year-old woman presents to the ed after finding a tick attached to her right flank. she believes it has been there since she went hiking four days prior. on exam, you notice a red annular rash on her right flank with mild central clearing. a urine beta-hcg test is positive. her last menstrual period was six weeks prior to this visit. what antibiotic prescription should this patient receive?
This patient receive should receive Amoxicillin antibiotic, 14 days should be prescribed for the patient.
What are antibiotics?
An antibiotic is a type of antimicrobial substance active against bacteria. It is the most important type of antibacterial agent for fighting bacterial infections, and antibiotic medications are widely used in the treatment and prevention of such infections. They may either kill or inhibit the growth of bacteria.
This patient has a history and physical exam consistent with Lyme disease. Her rash is classic for erythema migrants, seen in 60%-80% of those with Lyme disease, usually in the first several days after a tick bite.
This first stage of Lyme disease needs to be treated before it progresses to more serious symptoms affecting the neurological and cardiovascular systems. The presence of erythema migrans requires she be treated with a 14-day course of amoxicillin.
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everal day-shift nurses complain that the night-shift nurses aren't performing the daily calibration of the capillary glucose monitoring apparatus, which is their responsibility. it would be most prudent for a nurse-manager to
The nurse manager should review the calibration documentation, then address the findings.
Every time management responds to a complaint, they should first gather information. The nursing manager should therefore check the calibration documentation before discussing the results. Before looking into the complaint and gathering information, the nurse manager shouldn't remind the staff of a duty they could already be carrying out, call a meeting that might get tense, or offer advice to the charge nurse.
In order to ensure that the employee in issue understands protocols and procedures, the nurse manager should speak with the employee. If the employee still doesn't, the manager should consider requiring the person to go through another cycle of training.
The complete question is:
Several day-shift nurses complain that the night-shift nurses aren't performing the daily calibration of the capillary glucose monitoring apparatus, which is their responsibility. It would be most prudent for a nurse manager to ____________.
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which program pays medicare part a and b or medicare part c premiums, deductibles, coinsurance, and copayments?
Qualified Medicare Beneficiary (QMB) program pays medicare part a and b or medicare part c premiums, deductibles, coinsurance, and copayments.
Qualified Medicare Beneficiary (QMB) program helps obtain half A and/or half B premiums, deductibles, insurance, and copayments. Helps obtain half B premiums. Helps obtain half B premiums. Pays the half A premium sure those that have disabilities and square measure operating.
The standard monthly premium for health care half B enrollees are $164.90 for 2023, a decrease of $5.20 from $170.10 in 2022. The annual deductible for all health care half B beneficiaries is $226 in 2023, a decrease of $7 from the annual deductible of $233 in 2022.
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the client with diabetes mellitus has fatigue, nausea, a fruity odor to the breath, and polyuria. which should the nurse do first?
The nurse should first check blood glucose.
Diabetes mellitus is a group of diseases that affect the body's use of blood sugar (glucose). Glucose is an important source of energy for the muscles and tissues' cells. It is also the primary source of fuel for the brain. The primary cause of diabetes varies depending on the type.
Type 1 diabetes develops when your immune system, the body's defense system against infection, attacks and destroys the pancreas' insulin-producing beta cells. Scientists believe that type 1 diabetes is caused by genes as well as environmental factors such as viruses.
Diabetes mellitus is derived from the Greek word diabetes, which means "to pass through" and the Latin word mellitus, which means "sweet." According to historical records, Apollonius of Memphis coined the term "diabetes" around 250 to 300 BC.
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What is the name of the flap of cartilage that closes to prevent food and liquid from entering the air passages during swallowing?
The flap of cartilage that closes to prevent the food and liquid from entering the air passage is called as epiglottis.
The glottis is a narrowest part of the larynx which opens into the airway. The vocal cords make their outer boundaries. The epiglottis, a sheet-like flap of cartilage, prevents food from entering the airways when swallowed. The epiglottis is a sheet of cartilage that closes the glottis to control the entry of food during swallowing. It covers the glottis and prevents food from passing during the swallowing process. It remains open during breathing, allowing air to enter the larynx. These are the function of the epiglottis.
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Common side effects of inhaled medications used for acute shortness of breath include all of the following, except: A. muscle tremors. B. nervousness. C sedation. D. tachycardia.
The one that is not a common side effect of inhaled medication used for acute shortness of breath is sedation. Therefore, the correct answer is option C.
Some inhaled medications are used to treat and prevent shortness of breath caused by lung diseases, such as COPD and asthma. One of them is albuterol. Albuterol is used by inhalation by mouth using a specialized nebulizer or inhaler.
Some side effects of Albuterol are:
NervousnessHeadacheUncontrollable shaking of a body part (muscle tremor)Fast, pounding heartbeat or tachycardiaItchingNauseaWhile there are many side effects that can be caused by Albuterol, sedation is NOT one of them.
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