When a claimed parent is not biologically linked to the kid, the result of a DNA paternity test, known as the "probability of parentage," is 0%. However, when the alleged parent is biologically related to the child, the likelihood of parentage is normally 99.99%.
The most accurate inclusion paternity testing techniques are thought to be 99.99 percent precise. Numerous DNA match spots, or loci, from the infant and the probable father are compared to determine paternity. While some paternity tests simply compare 13 loci, the most reliable paternity tests compare 16 loci. When verifying whether a guy is the biological father of another individual, a DNA paternity test is virtually 100% accurate. Blood tests or cheek swabs can be used for DNA analysis. If you require the findings for legal reasons, the test must be performed at a medical facility.
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which are ways in which the parasympathetic and sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system are similar?
Both nervous system divisions use a preganglionic and ganglionic neuron, both divisions have the autonomic ganglia that house the ganglionic neurons, and both divisions are controlled involuntarily.
Involuntary physiological activities including heart rate, blood pressure, breathing, digestion, and sexual arousal are regulated by the autonomic nervous system, a part of the peripheral nervous system. Sympathetic, parasympathetic, and enteric are its three physically separate divisions.
Both afferent and efferent fibers are present in the sympathetic nervous system (SNS) and parasympathetic nervous system (PNS).
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if the passage of fluid is blocked at the confluence of sinuses, into which sinuses will fluid back up? (check all that apply.)
If the passage of fluid is blocked at the confluence of sinuses, into which sinuses will fluid back up fine capillaries.
The term "sinuses" refers to an enlargement or inflammation of the sinus tissue. The skull has four pairs of sinuses, which are cavities or gaps. They are linked by tiny canals. A thin mucus produced by the sinuses is expelled through the nasal passages. This drainage aids in keeping the nose germ-free and clean. Although they are usually filled with air, sinuses can clog and fill with fluid. A illness might develop after the emergence of germs (bacterial sinusitis). Rhinosinusitis is another name for this condition, where "rhino" stands for "nose." If the sinus tissue is inflamed, the nasal tissue will almost always swell. The paranasal sinuses in your head are close to your eyes and nose. They are so called because they are supported by skeletons. The ethmoidal sinuses are located between your eyes. The maxillary sinuses are located below your eyes. The sphenoidal sinuses are located behind your eyes. The frontal sinuses are located above your eyes. The largest of the sinus cavities, the maxillary cavity, is also one of the most prone to infection.
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what type of neuroglial cell serves as the gatekeeper of the blood-brain barrier by controlling what will get in and what will not get into neurons?
The myelinating cells of the central nervous system are called oligodendrocytes (CNS). They are the result of a cell lineage that must go through an intricate and carefully timed series of processes such as proliferation, migration, differentiation, and myelination in order to generate the insulating sheath of axons.
What distinguishes a Schwann cell from an oligodendrocyte?
Their geographic location is the main distinction. Schwann cells myelinate the peripheral nervous system, whereas oligodendrocytes myelinate the central nervous system. Multiple axons can be myelinated by oligodendrocytes, whereas only a single axon can be myelinated by Schwann cells.
What qualifies as an oligodendrocyte trait?
The central nervous system's oligodendrocytes are the cells that produce myelin. Their dark spherical, oval, and occasionally irregularly shaped nuclei are distinctive, and chromatin is clumped both within the nuclear envelope and throughout the nucleoplasm.
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molecules that are similar enough to a neurotransmitter to bind to its receptor sites on a dendrite and block that neurotransmitter's effects are called
An antagonist is a molecule that is sufficiently similar to a neurotransmitter to bind to the receptor sites on a dendrite and inhibit the effects of that neurotransmitter.
Similar substances known as norepinephrine and epinephrine function in the body as hormones and neurotransmitters, respectively. Both chemicals are crucial to the body's fight-or-flight response, and when they enter the bloodstream, they raise blood pressure, heart rate, and blood sugar levels.
The synapse is the location where the dendrites of one neuron meet the axon of another neuron. named receptors by neuron. Like keys in locks, the neurotransmitters fit into the receptors.
Small amine molecules, amino acids, or neuropeptides make up the majority of neurotransmitters.
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Put the enzymes of the first half of the citric acid cycle in order from left to right.
a. α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase
b. citrate synthase
c. isocitrate dehydrogenase
d. aconitase
citrate synthase, aconitase, isocitrate dehydrogenase, α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase is the correct order.
What are the steps of citric acid cycle?Step 1:
The two-carbon acetyl group (from acetyl CoA) is combined with a four-carbon oxaloacetate molecule in the first step to create a six-carbon citrate molecule. The sulfhydryl group (-SH) that CoA is linked to diffuses away and finally joins with another acetyl group. Due to its strong exergonic nature, this action cannot be undone. The availability of ATP and negative feedback both affect how quickly this reaction proceeds. The pace of this process reduces as ATP levels rise. The rate increases when ATP is scarce.
Step 2:
As citrate is transformed into its isomer, isocitrate, it loses one water molecule and gets another.
Step 3 and 4:
Isocitrate is oxidized in step three, resulting in the formation of the five-carbon molecule -ketoglutarate, a molecule of CO2, and two electrons that decrease NAD+ to NADH. ADP's beneficial effect and the negative feedback from ATP and NADH both influence this process. By releasing electrons that convert NAD+ to NADH and carboxyl groups that release CO2 molecules, steps three and four are both oxidation and decarboxylation processes. The results of steps three and four are -ketoglutarate and a succinyl group, respectively. To create succinyl CoA, CoA binds to the succinyl group. ATP, succinyl CoA, and NADH all function as feedback inhibitors, which control the enzyme that catalyses step four.
Step 5:
Coenzyme A is replaced with a phosphate group, and a high-energy link is created. When the succinyl group is changed into succinate, this energy is utilized in substrate-level phosphorylation to create either guanine triphosphate (GTP) or ATP. Depending on the kind of animal tissue they are present in, there are two isoenzyme versions of the enzyme for this step. One type is present in organs like the heart and skeletal muscle that require a lot of ATP. This kind generates ATP. The liver is one of the tissues that contains a lot of anabolic pathways and hence contains the second version of the enzyme. This kind generates GTP. Energy-wise, GTP is equal to ATP, but its application is more constrained. GTP is particularly important for protein synthesis.
Step 6:
Dehydration is the sixth step, which changes succinate into fumarate. Transferring two hydrogen atoms to FAD results in FADH2. Although these atoms' electrons have enough energy to reduce FAD, they lack the necessary energy to reduce NAD+. This carrier, as opposed to NADH, stays affixed to the enzyme and directly delivers the electrons to the electron transport chain. The enzyme that catalyses this step is situated inside the inner membrane of the mitochondrion, which enables this process.
Step 7:
In step seven, fumarate is mixed with water to create malate. Oxidizing malate is the final stage in the citric acid cycle that regenerates oxaloacetate. Another NADH molecule is created.
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What can one infer from a relatively linear survivorship curve, and what organism generally exhibits this kind of survivorship curve?
This organism's death rate is generally uniform throughout its lifecycle; birds. The survivor curves of type II are linear. Mortality is largely consistent throughout the lifespan in type II curves, and mortality is equally likely to occur at any point in the life span. The type II survival curve is found in many bird populations.
A survivorship curve is a graph that shows the number or proportion of individuals in a specific species or group who survive to each age (e.g. males or females). Based on a life table, survivorship curves can be created for a specific cohort (a group of people of roughly the same age).
Individuals with Type I survivability have a high rate of survival throughout their lives. Type II survivorship populations have a steady proportion of people dying throughout time. Type III survival populations have extremely high mortality rates at young ages.
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which letter represents the specific system that causes the skin to turn red after taking a very warm shower or sitting in a jacuzzi?
letter C represents the specific system that causes the skin to turn red after taking a very warm shower or sitting in a jacuzzi.
The blood vessels directly below the skin enlarge and fill with more blood, resulting in flushed skin. Flushing happens occasionally for most people and can be brought on by being too hot, exercising, or having strong emotions. Alcohol use and some drugs can both cause flushed skin as a side effect.
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Which of the following statements most accurately describes the benefits of the proofreading function of DNA polymerase? O All DNA mutations are detected and repaired during DNA replication. DNA polymerase can repair most mutations as they occur during DNA replication. DNA polymerase is always present in the nucleus and can repair all mutations when they occur. O DNA polymerase can be recruited to recently mutated sites to repair mutations.
The benefits and functions of DNA polymerase proofreading are B. DNA polymerase can repair most of the mutations that occur during DNA replication.
DNA polymerase is an important enzyme in DNA replication and DNA respiration, namely by catalyzing reactions that form DNA. DNA polymerase plays a role in the process of elongation or chain elongation and proofreading.
Proofreading is a way of identifying copy errors and correcting them. DNA polymerase will repair most of the mutations that occur during DNA replication by correcting nucleotide errors. Incorrect nucleotides can be added to the growing chain, after which the DNA polymerase catalytic subunits separate.
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most communication between the peripheral nervous system and the central nervous system takes place via __________ that enter and exit the spinal cord.
Most communication between the peripheral nervous system and the central nervous system takes place via Nerves that enter and exit the spinal cord.
Communication between the Peripheral and Central Nervous SystemsNerves are the pathways through which information is transmitted between the peripheral and central nervous systems. They enter and exit the spinal cord, providing a direct connection between the two systems.
The spinal cord serves as the gateway for the nervous system to relay information between the body and the brain. Nerves are the pathways for this information, traveling along the spinal cord to the brain to be processed. Nerves enter and exit the spinal cord, providing direct connections between the peripheral nervous system, which responds to signals from the body, and the central nervous system, which controls and coordinates the body’s functions.
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within human populations, it is unethical to force people to mate with each other in order to map disease genes. how do scientists go about determining where the disease genes are located?
Knowing which genes—when they are dysfunctional—cause which diseases will make it easier to diagnose patients and give information on the functional traits of the mutation.
With the development of modern high-throughput sequencing methods and the knowledge gained from the expanding area of genomics, illness genes are being identified more quickly, enabling researchers to find more complex mutations. Techniques for identifying disease genes frequently use the same general process. First, DNA is taken from a number of patients who are thought to share a hereditary condition. Their DNA samples are then examined and screened to identify likely areas where the mutation may exist. The following list includes these methods. The mutant gene should be located in the region that overlaps when these likely locations are lined up next to one another. Candidate genes are looked for in a region of the genome where sufficient sequence information is available. These genes' coding areas are then sequenced up until a mutation is found or another patient is identified, at which point the research can be repeated, potentially focusing on a smaller region of interest.
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what does the term digestion
Answer: Digestion is the process by which the body breaks down food into smaller molecules that can be absorbed and used for energy. This process begins in the mouth, where food is mechanically broken down by chewing and mixed with enzymes that begin to break down the food chemically. The partially digested food then moves through the esophagus and into the stomach, where it is mixed with stomach acid and further broken down into a liquid called chyme.
From the stomach, the chyme moves into the small intestine, where it is mixed with enzymes from the pancreas and bile from the liver. These enzymes continue the process of breaking down the food into its individual molecules, such as sugars, amino acids, and fatty acids. These molecules are then absorbed into the bloodstream through the walls of the small intestine and transported to the liver, where they are processed and used for energy.
Digestion is a complex and essential process that allows the body to extract the nutrients it needs from the food we eat. It involves both mechanical and chemical processes, and is aided by a number of organs and enzymes in the digestive system.
Which strand
of mRNA would be made during transcription using
strand shown below?
the DNA
GAT CCG
• A. CUA GGC
• B. GTU GGC
• C. GAT CCG
•
D. CTA GGC
Answer:
The answer is D. Where the complimentary strand made is CTA GGC
Explanation:
CTA GGC
how many dna molecules would there be after four rounds of pcr if the initial reaction mixture contained two molecules?
32 molecules of DNA would be after four PCR if the initial reaction mixture contained two molecules.
After 'n' rounds of the polymerase chain reaction, it is feasible to produce 2 n DNA molecules from a single DNA template molecule (PCR). Therefore, 2 to the power 4 = 16 DNA molecules will be produced after 4 PCR cycles If two molecules are doubled four times, 32 DNA molecules are created.The PCR method is what?
The highly sensitive PCR method enables quick DNA amplification of a particular section. Using visual methods based on size and charge, PCR may detect and identify gene sequences by producing billions of copies of a certain DNA fragment or gene.
What does a PCR have to accomplish?
A given DNA segment can be quickly multiplied (amplified) into millions or billions of copies using the polymerase chain reaction (abbreviated PCR), allowing for more in-depth analysis.
What are the three main PCR steps?
For any DNA synthesis reaction, there are only three easy stages that must be completed: First, the template is denaturated into single strands. Next, primers are annealed to each original strand to synthesise new DNA strands. Finally, the new DNA strands are extended from the primers.
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What are the 4 types of games?
The four categories of games include sports games, role-playing games, action games, and adventure games.
Action games mostly revolve around physical obstacles that call for quick reflexes and hand-eye coordination. The action genre includes first-person shooters, platformers, fighting games, "beat 'em ups," survival games, and rhythm games.
An adventure game is a type of computer or video game that emphasizes storytelling over reflex-based difficulties and features elements of investigation, exploration, puzzle-solving, and character interaction.
A role-playing game is a game in which each player plays the role of a character who may interact in the game's fictional universe and usually occurs in a fantasy or science fiction setting. In that, a game is an activity or competition that people participate in for fun and that has rules, sports, and games that are pretty similar to one another.
In that, a game is an activity or competition that people engage in for enjoyment and that has rules, sports, and games that are extremely similar to one another. A sport is a contest or game in which competitors do certain physical tasks while adhering to a set of rules.
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Though scientists previously believed that domestic dogs evolved from canis ______, the gray wolf, genetic analysis indicates they actually evolved from a now extinct species.
Though scientists previously believed that domestic dogs evolved from canis vertebrates the gray wolf, genetic analysis indicates they actually evolved from a now extinct species.
Which two chordate characteristics are only seen during embryological development in the majority of vertebrates?Only few chordates exhibit these traits throughout embryonic development. The notochord supports the skeleton, giving the phylum its name, and invertebrates evolves into the vertebral column. The central nervous system, which includes the brain and spine, develops from the dorsal hollow nerve cord.
The placenta is a special and intricate endocrine organ that is essential for the quick movement of nutrients and wastes between the closely related maternal and foetal circulatory systems throughout foetal development.
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According to Le Chatelier’s principle, what happens to the equilibrium constant (K) when the concentration of the reactants is doubled?
The value of the equilibrium constant (K) is doubled.
The value of the equilibrium constant (K) is halved.
The value of the equilibrium constant (K) remains the same.
The value of the equilibrium constant (K) changes unpredictably.
According to Le Chatelier’s principle, the value of the equilibrium constant (K) remains the same when the concentration of the reactants is doubled.
What do you mean by equilibrium constant?For a chemical reaction, the equilibrium constant can be defined as the ratio between the amount of reactant and the amount of product which is used to determine chemical behaviour.
For an equilibrium equation aA + bB ⇌ cC + dD, the equilibrium constant (K), can be given by the formula,
K = [C]c[D]d / [A]a[B]b
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Answer:
c
Explanation:
edge 2023
How could an error during transcription affect the protein that is produced apex.
The error during transcription affects the protein that is produced by (B) The protein would be made of the wrong nucleic acids.
The process of producing mRNA out of a DNA molecule takes place in the cellular nucleus and is known as transcription. The RNA polymerase enzyme is used to mediate the process. The messenger RNA, or mRNA, transmits genetic data or genetic codes, which are later used in the translation process to produce proteins.
Codons, which are aligned with genetic information, forecast the amino acids and, in turn, the protein that will be created. Therefore, a transcription error denotes a change in base pairs, which further denotes a change in codons, and then different amino acids, which would ultimately result in the production of an erroneous protein.
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Answer: The protein could be made of a wrong nucleic acid
Explanation:
The protein produced is altered by the transcriptional mistake. The incorrect nucleic acids would be used to make the protein.
Transcription, which takes place in the cellular nucleus, is the process of converting a DNA molecule into mRNA. The process is mediated by the RNA polymerase enzyme. In order to generate proteins, the messenger RNA, or mRNA, transmits genetic information or genetic codes. Codons predict the amino acids and, consequently, the protein that will be produced since they are in line with genetic information. As a result, a transcription error indicates a change in base pairs, which further indicates a change in codons, followed by different amino acids, which would finally produce an incorrect product.
you have stumbled on a new species of fly (order diptera), and being a geneticist, you have already identified a few genes and observed an unusual phenotypic inheritance pattern. you have noticed that some flies have wings pointing forward and other flies have wings pointing backward. digging in a bit deeper, you discover that the gene wing direction (wdir) controls which direction the wings point, and that if you cross a homozygous backward-wing mother (wdir wdir) with a homozygous forward-wing father (wdir- wdir-), all of the offspring (wdir wdir-) have backward wings. when you perform the reciprocal cross, a homozygous forward-wing mother (wdir- wdir-) with a homozygous backward-wing father (wdir wdir), you observe that all of the offspring (wdir wdir-) have forward-facing wings. how would you account for this bizarre genotype:phenotype relationship?
Explanation:
Only the maternal gene for wing direction is being expressed due to genomic imprinting that silences the paternal gene during gamete formation.
What is the relationship between translation and meaning?
The relationship between translation and meaning is that both convey the explanation aspect.
An accurate definition of a sentence's or a text's meaning that conveys the same context or idea in a different language is referred to as a translation. Finding an equivalent meaning for a text in a second language is the goal of translation. Since meaning is the subject to be translated from the text in the source language into the text in the target language, then a strong focus on meaning equivalence.
The relationship between translation and meaning is a complex one. Translate is converting a message from one language into another, while meaning is the concept or idea that a word, phrase, or text expresses. For a translation to be successful, it must accurately convey the meaning of the original text. This can be challenging, as the same word can have different meanings in different contexts, and a single word in one language can often have no direct equivalent in another language.
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Why is using rna as a template for protein synthesis instead of translating proteins directly from the dna advantageous for cells?
Using RNA as a template for protein synthesis as opposed to translating proteins immediately from the DNA is wonderful for the cell.
RNA is an awful lot greater strong than DNA. b. RNA acts as an expendable replica of the genetic material, permitting the DNA to function a permanent, pristine repository of the genetic material. The foremost purpose why RNA is used for protein synthesis in place of DNA is that the RNA molecules could have a nitrogenous base Uracil.
Uracil replaces the nitrogenous base Thymine of DNA.short, analyzing DNA gives us with a static photograph of what a mobileular or organism would possibly do or become, while measuring RNA we could us see what a mobileular/organism is surely doing proper now.
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Which cranial nerve pathway would be used to look cross-eyed at the tip of your nose?
The trochlear nerve is a member of one of the 12 sets of cranial nerves. It enables the eye's superior oblique muscle to move. It is feasible to look down because of this. The nerve also allows you to turn your eyes away from or toward your nose.
What are the cranial nerves that control the movement of the eyes?
The position of the eyeballs is controlled by cranial nerves III (CNIII), IV (trochlear), and VI (abducens), whereas CNIII also affects the position of the eyelids and the size of the pupils.
What is the function of cranial nerve 4?
The fourth group of cranial nerves includes this one (CN IV or cranial nerve 4). A motor neuron communicates commands from the brain to the muscles. To control eye movement, CN IV collaborates with the oculomotor nerve and other eye muscles.
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digoxin is an inhibitor of na /k atpase that is used to treat irregular heartbeats (medical term: atrial fibrillation). digoxin slows the heartbeat by raising intracellular calcium levels. what is the most reasonable explanation for how digoxin can raise intracellular calcium concentrations through inhibiting na /k atpase?
A lower-than-normal intracellular Na+ concentration is the outcome of inhibiting Na+/K+ ATPase. The Na+/Ca2+ ant porter's efficiency is lowered as a result.
By the Na +/ K +- ATPase quizlet, which of the following are pumped?To make up for the continual leaking of sodium and potassium ions, the Na+-K+ pump actively transfers both ions across the membrane. Each ion is pushed in a specific direction. K+ is injected into the cell while Na+ is pushed out. which two ions' concentrations are highest outside of the cell.
What mechanism best describes Ca2+ removal from the cytosol?What mechanism best describes the transport of Ca2+ from the cytosol, where it is present in low concentrations, to the endoplasmic reticulum, where it is present in high concentrations? Active transport is required for calcium movement.
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We use the sense of _______ to sample our environment for information about the food we will eat, the presence of individuals in the room, or potential danger
Olfaction is the answer. We sample our environment using our sense of smell to learn about the food we will consume, the people in the room, or any potential risk.
Olfaction, or the sense of smell, is what happens when odorous chemicals are detected in the environment as aerosolized particles. Olfaction is one of the five unique senses, along with vision, taste, hearing, and balance. Through the use of the olfactory system's components, humans can sense odors.
Volatile chemicals that enter the nasal cavity in humans trigger receptors in the olfactory epithelium to initiate the process of olfaction (OE). The olfactory receptor (OR) proteins are found in projections of the olfactory sensory neurons that resemble hairs (OSNs).
So, we can say Olfaction provides the answer. In order to learn more about the food we will consume, the people in the room, or potential danger, we use the sense of smell.
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compare and contrast the hip joint with the shoulder joint. how are these structures different from one another? what are the consequences of these differences?
The shoulder joint is made up of the head of the humerus, which rests on the glenoid fossa of the scapula (or shoulder blade). Whereas the hip joint is the head of the femur that fits into the acetabulum of the ilium (pelvic bones).
The head of the humerus, which sits on the glenoid fossa of the scapula, forms the shoulder joint (or shoulder blade). In contrast, the hip joint is made up of the acetabulum of the ilium and the head of the femur (pelvic bones). But compared to the hip, the shoulder can dislocate significantly more quickly. The shoulder socket is rather small. This increases its mobility. It is held in position by ligaments, tendons, and muscles. Similar to how a golf ball interacts with a tee, the joint surfaces move together. The joint is fundamentally less stable than one with a real ball and deep socket, like the hip joint, because the socket is very shallow and smaller than the ball. Because the articulating components of the hip are either closer together or farther away than those of the shoulder, the hip joint has less range of motion than the shoulder joint.
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if a chemical that disrupts cell division were added to a test tube containing human kidney cells, which process would stop?
If a chemical that disrupts cell division were added to a test tube containing human kidney cells, mitosis process would stop.
Normal cells undergo the cell cycle in a controlled manner. They select whether to divide their cells based on information about their internal states as well as stimuli from their surroundings. This control prevents cells from dividing in unfavorable situations (such as when their DNA is damaged or when there is insufficient space in a tissue or organ for new cells).
A cell's fundamental decision point, or the point at which it must decide whether or not to split, is the G1. Once the cell enters the S phase and passes the G1, it is irrevocably committed to dividing. That is, a cell that successfully passes the G1 will go the rest of the way through the cell cycle and give rise to two daughter cells, barring unforeseen issues like DNA damage or replication failures.
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which internal structures of animals are specifically adapted to use contraction to cause movement?
Muscle cells are the structures of animals are specifically adapted to use contraction to cause movement.
Muscle cells are designed to contract. Muscles enable motions such as walking, as well as bodily processes such as respiration and digestion. Muscle tissue is classified into three types in the body: skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle. Skeletal muscle tissue develops into skeletal muscles, which attach to bones or skin and control locomotion and any consciously controlled movement.
Skeletal muscle is also known as voluntary muscle because it can be controlled by thought. Skeletal muscles are long and cylindrical in shape; when examined under a microscope, skeletal muscle tissue appears striped or striated. To stay alive, grow, and reproduce, an animal must find food, water, and oxygen, as well as eliminate metabolic waste.
Therefore, muscle cells are the structures of animals are specifically adapted to use contraction to cause movement.
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the first round of replication in the meselson and stahl experiment disproved which theory of replication?
The first round of replication in the meselson and stahl experiment disproved Conservative theory of replication
The intermediate band told Meselson and Stahl that the DNA molecules made in the first round of replication was a hybrid of light and heavy DNA. This result fit with the dispersive and semi-conservative models, but not with the conservative model.Meselson and Stahl Experiment was an experimental proof for semiconservative DNA replication. In 1958, Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl conducted an experiment on E. coli which divides in 20 minutes, to study the replication of DNA.Process used by Meselson and Stahl for studying semiconservative replication of DNA was CsCl density gradient centrifugation.
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Question: Signals from the _____ make the skeletal muscles move.
Pls help it’s due tomorrow
Answer:
Brain
Explanation:
During times of relaxation, the ______ division of the autonomic nervous system utilizes discrete and localized innervation, stimulating only one or a few structures at the same time.
The parasympathetic nervous system is used in times of relaxation.
The parasympathetic nervous system is a network of nerves that help the body to relax after exposure to stress or danger. It also helps sustain life-supporting processes such as digestion when you are safe and relaxed. Informal descriptions of this system include the rhymes "rest and digest" or "feed and breed."
The parasympathetic nervous system is part of the autonomic nervous system. It is often called the "automatic" nervous system because it is responsible for many functions that you don't have to think about controlling. The parasympathetic portion of the autonomic nervous system balances the sympathetic nervous system. The sympathetic nervous system controls the body's "fight or flight" response, while the parasympathetic nervous system helps control the body's response during rest.
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what is the effect of acetylcholine in the digestive system? a. increase production of secretions b. relaxation of sphincters c. contraction of smooth muscle in gi wall d. all of the listed answers are effects of acetylcholine.
Increase production of secretions, relaxation of sphincters, contraction of smooth muscle in gi wall are all effects of acetylcholine. Thus correct option(d).
Acetylcholine (ACh) is an organic molecule that serves as a neurotransmitter in the bodies and brains of several animal species, including humans.
It is an ester of acetic acid and choline, which is how its name was formed from its chemical composition. Cholinergic refers to bodily regions that utilize or are impacted by acetylcholine.
Cholinergics and anticholinergics are terms used to describe substances that alter the cholinergic system's overall function.
Why is acetylcholine necessary and what does it do?
The parasympathetic nervous system, a portion of the autonomic nervous system (a branch of the peripheral nervous system), which contracts smooth muscles, widens blood vessels, increases body secretions, and decreases heart rate, uses acetylcholine as its primary neurotransmitter.
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