In the depolarization step of action potential where the membrane resting potential is reversed by the rush of sodium ions into a neuron.
A membrane potential shift from -70mV to +30mV for a limited period of time is known as an action potential.
The moving action potential has three stages:
1) The depolarization step, where sodium ions rush into a neuron and reverse the membrane resting potential; and
2) repolarization, which is a mechanism that restores the resting voltage of the membrane and the ionic concentration in the cell, is caused by the closure of the voltage-gated sodium channels and the opening of the potassium channels.
3) Hyperpolarization, when excessive potassium ion efflux occurs as a result of some open potassium channels increasing potassium permeability and causing a drop in the membrane potential.
4) The action potential, which is a transient reversal of membrane potential that travels through the axon, comprises three phases that are described above.
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deep earth extraction inc. operates a facility near estuary bay. discharging waste from the facility into the bay can result in
Deep earth extraction inc. operates a facility near estuary bay. discharging waste from the facility into the bay can result in penalties and damages. The correct option to this question is A.
Potentially culpable parties can shield themselves from accountability by changing ownership in the event that dangerous chemicals are released from a facility. 35. Possibile liable parties can escape accountability in the event of a leak of hazardous chemicals from a facility by changing ownership. a harmful tort.
Misdemeanor-level infractions are punishable by up to a year in jail and/or fines of up to $100,000 for individuals and $200,000 for businesses (see alternative Fines Act 18 U.S.C. 3571). Sections 407, 408, 409, 414, and 415 violations require a required minimum of 30 days in prison.
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Complete question: Deep Earth Extraction, Inc., operates a facility near Estuary Bay. Discharging waste from the facility into the bay can result in a. penalties and damages.b. penalties only.c. damages only.d. none of the choices.
if a cell increases the activity of its actin severing proteins, will it lead in the short term to more or less actin polymer mass? chose the most accurate answer.
More polymer will form if the concentration of free actin monomers is higher than the Cc at both the plus and minus ends.
Less polymer will form if the concentration of free actin monomers is lower than the Cc at both the plus and minus ends.
Actin polymerization encourages FAK and Src to activate small G proteins by signalling to GEFs and GTPases (e.g., Rho and Rac). The actomyosin network is then forced to develop as a result of G proteins' induction of cytoskeleton-regulating proteins.
What stops cells from forming actin polymers?
Actin monomer is sequestered by monomer-binding proteins, reducing its availability for polymerization. As a result, actin does not polymerize when monomer-binding proteins are present in stoichiometric levels.
Q. If a cell increases the activity of its actin severing proteins, will it lead in the short term to MORE or LESS actin polymer mass? Chose the most accurate answer.
Increased severing activity will result in LESS polymer under any conditions.
Increased severing activity will result in NO CHANGE in the total amount of polymer under any conditions. It simply results in a larger number of smaller filaments.
Increased severing activity will result in MORE polymer under any conditions.
If the concentration of free actin monomers is below the Cc for both the plus and minus ends, then MORE polymer will result. If the concentration of free actin monomers is above the Cc for both the plus and minus ends, then LESS polymer will result.
If the concentration of free actin monomers is above the Cc for both the plus and minus ends, then MORE polymer will result. If the concentration of free actin monomers is below the Cc for both the plus and minus ends, then LESS polymer will result.
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moving from the equator towards the poles, the average skin color of human populations gets lighter. the main exceptions or interruptions to this pattern are in locations that:
It has been hypothesised that a connection exists between skin colour, latitude, and intensity of UV light based on previous investigations of the association between human skin colour and distance from the equator.
The fundamental presumptions are that UV radiation is strongest at the equator and that it decreases uniformly in both the Northern and Southern Hemispheres as latitude increases. These presumptions form the basis of the common study of human skin tone, which assumes that skin tone is darkest at the equator and that skin tone decreases with latitude equally in both hemispheres. At identical latitudes, UV radiation is more in the Southern Hemisphere than the Northern Hemisphere. This variation in astronomical and climatic circumstances may have existed in the past at various times and may have had an impact on the development of human skin tone.
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in humans, assume red hair is recessive to dark hair. what are the chances of a dark-haired couple having a red-haired child if each had a red-haired parent?
Your DNA, or genetic material, is divided up into discrete units called genes. Your hair colour and other characteristics that make you who you are are determined by your genes! Alleles are various variants of a gene.
So, let's assume that a single gene determines a person's hair colour. This gene's several alleles include "blonde hair," "red hair," and "brown hair." Brown hair results from having the gene's brown allele. You have blonde hair if you carry the blond allele. Additionally, if you carry the red gene, your hair is red.
However, it's not so easy because each gene has more than one allele. Actually, you have two: one from each parent, your mother and father. Red or blonde hair's DNA is not as robust as brown hairs. Your two alleles must both be blonde in order to have blonde hair. Red hair is the same way. These qualities are recessive. Red and blonde hair have DNA that is almost equal in strength. Those with two types of DNA frequently have strawberry blonde hair.
When you combine everything, you get:
Brown DNA + brown DNA = brown hair
Brown DNA + red DNA = brown hair
Brown DNA + blonde DNA = brown hair
Blonde DNA + blonde DNA = blonde hair
Red DNA + red DNA = red hair
Red DNA + blonde DNA = strawberry blonde hair
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A. The fish population contains individuals with effective predation evasive traits and eventual changes to the dam prevent fish from moving downstream.
B. The fish completely lack any effective predation evasive traits across the entire population, move infrequently from upstream to downstream locations, and reproduce with low frequency.
C. The fish reproduce with high frequency, move with high frequency from upstream to downstream locations, and have a robust set of predation evasive traits across the entire population.
D. The rate of upstream fish entering the downstream section decreases over time without being completely shut off, and many of these fish carry predation evasive traits.
The fish completely lack any effective predation evasive traits across the entire population, move infrequently from upstream to downstream locations, and reproduce with low frequency, because the fish in this situation would become extinct even though they live in predation-prone waters and do not migrate, and they do not reproduce quickly enough to substitute the population lost to predators.
When prey was set to release from predation pressure, their growth increased, a process that had not previously been studied in reef-fish growth studies. The suppression of development in response to predation pressure suggests that predators may have a broader impact on reef-fish evolution than previously thought.
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22.Scientists are measuring the effectiveness of a household cleaner on harmful bacteria found on common surfaces. The results are recorded in the table above. Which of the following claims is BEST supported by the data in the table?
Answer:
Using more than 15ml of cleaner will not kill any more bacteria
Explanation:
When the amount gets over 15ml, the change in bacteria population levels out
Which tatement BEST decribe the relationhip between adenoine diphophate (ADP and adenoine triphophate (ATP)?
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A. With an input of energy, ADP rearrange to become ATP. B. Without any energy change, ADP rearrange to become ATP. • C. With an input of energy, ADP combine with a phophate group to become ATP. O D. With a releae of energy, ADP combine with a phophate group to become ATP
The link between adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and adenosine triphosphate (ATP) is best explained by the fact that when energy is added, ADP interacts with a phosphate group to form ATP. The right Option is (c).
The mitochondria of cells are thought of as the powerhouse since ATP is produced there. As seen in the reaction below, ATP is produced when ADP reacts with an inorganic phosphate and an energy source to generate ADP;
Pi + energy + ATP + H2O = ADP + inorganic phosphate
One adenine, one sugar, and two phosphates make up the biological molecule known as adenosine diphosphate (ADP). Its most crucial function is the creation of ATP, the most vital energy molecule in living cells, when it is coupled with a phosphate molecule. An enzyme called ATP synthase produces ATP during oxidative phosphorylation. Specifically, protons travel through the protein and cause a conformational change once a proton gradient is established. ADP and inorganic phosphate are then combined by ATP synthase to form an ATP molecule.
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Correct Question:
Which statement BEST describes the relationship between adenosine diphosphate (ADP) and adenosine triphosphate (ATP)?
A. With an input of energy, ADP rearranges to become ATP.
B. Without any energy change, ADP rearranges to become ATP.
C. With an input of energy, ADP combines with a phosphate group to become ATP.
D. With a release of energy, ADP combines with a phosphate group to become ATP.
a 1-month-old infant expends the greatest amount of energy on: a. metabolic activity b. growth c. involuntary muscle movement d. voluntary muscle movement
The correct response is a. Metabolic activity. The infant who uses the most energy for metabolic activity is one month old.
Anaerobic digestion and cellular respiration are a few examples of metabolic activity. For instance, the ten-step glycolysis process causes cell division into two pyruvate molecules. Numerous variables, such as age, gender, muscle-to-fat ratio, level of physical activity, and hormone function, have an impact on metabolic rate. In order to produce energy for various processes and for the synthesis of new substances, metabolism can be defined as a biochemical process that adds up all chemical reactions that take place in each of a living thing's cells. Exercise has a significant impact on metabolism, and it's essential that the body adjust to these changes in order to be able to supply the energy needed for muscular contraction and the physiological processes of critical tissues.
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The flow of highly energetic electrons through the electron transport chain changes the _____ of the pump proteins, which causes them to transport protons across the membrane.
The flow of the highly energetic electrons through electron transport chain will change the shape of the pump.
As the high-energy electrons are transported along the chain, some of their energy is trapped. This energy is used to drive hydrogen ions (from NADH and FADH2) from the matrix across the inner membrane and into the intermembrane space.
In the electron transport chain, electrons are passed from one molecule to another and the energy released in these electron transfers is used to form an electrochemical gradient. Chemiosmosis uses the energy stored in the gradient to produce ATP. When an electron moves from a lower energy level to a higher energy level, energy is absorbed by the atom.
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Which of these is NOT a digestive enzyme?
lipase, protease, catalase, amylase
Answer: Which of these is NOT a digestive enzyme?
C. catalase
Explanation: The enzyme that is NOT a digestive enzyme is catalase.
Enzymes are proteins that help facilitate chemical reactions in the body. Digestive enzymes specifically help break down food into smaller molecules that can be absorbed by the body.
Let's go through each of the enzymes mentioned:
1. Lipase: Lipase is a digestive enzyme that breaks down fats into smaller molecules called fatty acids and glycerol. This allows the body to absorb and utilize the fats we consume in our diet.
2. Protease: Protease is a digestive enzyme that breaks down proteins into smaller molecules called amino acids. This is important because amino acids are essential for building and repairing tissues in the body.
3. Catalase: Although catalase is an enzyme, it is not involved in the process of digestion. Instead, it plays a role in protecting cells from the toxic effects of hydrogen peroxide by converting it into water and oxygen.
4. Amylase: Amylase is a digestive enzyme that breaks down carbohydrates, specifically starches, into smaller molecules like glucose. This allows the body to absorb and utilize the energy stored in carbohydrates.
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a black bear accidentally stepped on a ladybug beetle, and the beetle survived. what type of ecological species interaction is this?
a black bear accidentally stepped on a ladybug beetle, and the beetle survived. this type of ecological species interaction is known as neutralism.
The interaction between two species that interact but do not have an impact on one another is known as neutralism. It is used to explain relationships in which one species' fitness has no bearing whatsoever on that of another. It is exceedingly unlikely and impossible to demonstrate true neutralism. Since true neutralism is uncommon or nonexistent, it is frequently applied to circumstances in which interactions are just minor or insignificant.
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a man is homozygous for type a blood and a woman is heterozygous for type b blood. what is the probability that their child’s phenotypic blood type is o?
With a 50% chance of being type AB, a 50% chance of being type AO, and a 0% chance of being type B, their child's phenotypic blood type is likely to be o.
How likely is homozygous blood, in percentage terms?The Punnett square below shows that there is a 25% chance of having a healthy homozygous (AA) child, a 50% probability of having a heterozygous (Aa) carrier child, just like you and your partner, and a 25% risk of having a homozygous recessive (AA) child with each birth.
What occurs if blood types A and B are combined?It follows that those with type A blood produce antibodies against B antigens. An ABO incompatibility reaction would occur in a person with type A blood who had a transfusion of type B or AB blood.
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What is the relationship between genes and proteins and enzymes?
The gene is the main genetic material responsible for the coding of proteins and enzymes.
DNA is the main molecule that stores the genetic information responsible for building and maintaining the structure of an organism. The small segments within DNA are referred to as genes. This gene codes for particular proteins or enzymes.
First, the information in the genes will be converted to mRNA by a transcription process. This information is then used to synthesize proteins or enzymes during translation. The protein synthesized helps to maintain cellular structure and function. And the enzymes will be used to facilitate the biochemical reactions that occur in the body.
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What is used for burning fuel?
Oxygen is required for burning fuels. The chemical activities that occur during fire are aided by oxygen. This is referred to as oxidation.
Any flammable material can be used as fuel. It is distinguished by its moisture content, size, form, number, and placement throughout the terrain. The amount of moisture impacts how readily it may burn.
Air contains around 21% oxygen, and most burns require at least 16% oxygen concentration to ignite. When fuel burns, it combines with oxygen in the surrounding air to produce heat and combustion products (gases, smoke, embers, etc.).
Fire happens when combustible fuel becomes gas in the presence of oxygen at extremely high temperatures. The presence of flames indicates that the gas has been heated. Lower-temperature sources of fire can also occur. Combustible materials, such as smoldering embers, can attain their ignition temperature over time.
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The study of bystander intervention is the study of situational variables related to helping a stranger, most notably the ____.
a. decreased likelihood of helping as the number of bystanders increases
b. fear of getting involved
c. increased likelihood of helping as the number of bystanders increases
d. desire to help but with concerns about potential liability
The study of situational factors that affect whether or not a stranger receives assistance, particularly the tendency to withhold assistance as the number of onlookers rises, hence option A is correct.
What is bystander intervention?Bystander intervention is defined as the use of intervention in the prevention and de-escalation of potentially violent occurrences.
But this may also be seen as the readiness to intervene and the assistance provided to someone in need.
Therefore, it aids in the prevention of domestic and sexual violence, hence option A is correct.
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some microbes cover their antigen markers (protein configuration) with a carbohydrate based material that does not have antigen properties. this covering is called the
some microbes cover their antigen markers (protein configuration) with a carbohydrate based material that does not have antigen properties. this covering is called the capsid
Most experts agree that viruses don't encode any of the proteins required for the glycosylation process. However, some viruses, like Ebola2 and HIV3, embellish their capsid proteins with discrete-sized (6–12 unit) oligosaccharides that are fully synthesized and attached by the host glycosylation machinery. The glycans of these viruses therefore mimic those of the host.
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both parents are heterozygous for tay-sachs disease (an autosomal recessive disorder). three children in a row were born with tay-sachs disease. what is the chance that a fourth child will have tay-sachs disease?
The chance that a fourth child will have tay-sachs disease is 25%.
Tay-Sachs disease is a rare genetic condition that kills brain and spinal cord nerve cells. Babies and young children are the primary targets of this disease. It is typically lethal and prevents the nerves from functioning normally.
A hexosaminidase-A deficiency in the body causes this condition. This is an autosomal recessive disorder. So it requires two recessive alleles to express the disease.
Let us consider T as the dominant allele and t as the recessive allele. Here, the two parents are heterozygous which means their genotype is Tt. Crossing this we get Punnett square as attached here.
Here, the probability of a normal child is calculated from the occurrence of TT and Tt. Since it is recessive, it requires two recessive alleles to express.
Out of four from the Punnett square, three are normal. Then, the probability is 75%, or 3/4. And out of four, one is affected, so the probability is 25%, or 1/4.
Therefore, the answer is 25%.
The complete question is -
Both parents are heterozygous for Tay-Sachs disease (an autosomal recessive disorder). Three children in a row were born with Tay-Sachs disease. What is the chance that a fourth child will have Tay-Sachs disease?
25%
100%
50%
0%
75%
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The subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system are the division and sympathetic division.a. Trueb. False
The subdivisions of the autonomic nervous system are the division and sympathetic division is false.
The sympathetic division and the parasympathetic division are the two parts of the autonomic nervous system. The fight-or-flight response is connected to the sympathetic nervous system, whereas rest and digest is the term used to describe parasympathetic activity. The harmony of the two systems is known as homeostasis.The enteric nervous system is occasionally regarded as a component of the autonomic nervous system and other times as a separate entity. The activities of the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions are complementary: the sympathetic division controls actions that call for rapid responses (such as fight-or-flight), while the parasympathetic division governs slower-paced behaviors (rest and digest).To establish homeostasis, the SNS and PSNS are thought to continuously modulate essential processes in an often hostile manner. This involves both heart and breathing processes.To know more about sympathetic check the below link:
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Where was the first veterinary school founded?
7. “It is often said that getting vaccinated is not about yourself, they're about everyone else.”What does it mean
which statement is true regarding carbohydrates? group of answer choices the brain relies almost exclusively on glucose for energy.
It is true that carbs provide the brain with almost all of its energy. Molecular sugars make up carbohydrates, or carbs. One of the three primary nutrients included in meals and beverages, together with proteins and fats, is carbohydrate.
Bread, beans, milk, popcorn, potatoes, cookies, spaghetti, soft drinks, corn, and cherry pie are just a few examples of the many healthy and bad meals that include carbohydrates. They also take on various shapes. Sugars, fibres, and starches are the most widely used and plentiful types. A healthy diet should include a variety of foods that are high in carbs. The body receives glucose from carbohydrates, which is then transformed into energy for use during physical activity and maintaining biological functions. However, the type of carbohydrate that is consumed matters; some are better than others.
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Describe how traits (phenotypes) and reproduction of ladybugs are connected to one another
Answer:
Ladybugs reproduce sexually, meaning that two individuals are required for successful mating and reproductive success. Traits, or phenotypes, influence the likelihood of successful mating and reproductive success. For example, certain physical characteristics, such as size, color, and pattern, may be more appealing to potential mates and therefore make the individual more likely to mate and reproduce. Additionally, certain behaviors, such as courtship displays, may make an individual more attractive to potential mates and contribute to their reproductive success.
Explanation:
The numbers represent the change in energy for a chemical reaction. They are calculated by subtracting the energy of products from the energy of reactants. Which number would result from an endothermic reaction?
–212
0
-1
800
The energy is calculated by subtracting the energy of products from the energy of reactants, and the positive energy shows the endothermic reaction. The correct answer is "800," which can be found in the final option.
What are the various types of reactions?
There are different types of reactions, such as the endothermic reaction, where the energy is used for the product's formation, and the exothermic reaction. The energy is released in an exothermic reaction, resulting in a negative result, whereas the energy is used in an endothermic reaction, resulting in a positive result.
Hence, the endothermic reaction is the 800 that is present in the last option.
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Answer:
d. 800
Explanation:
The numbers represent the change in energy for a chemical reaction. They are calculated by subtracting the energy of products from the energy of reactants. Which number would result from an endothermic reaction?
800
carrying capacity a. is not a constant number. b. cannot be influenced by natural disasters. c. cannot be influenced by ecological succession. d. cannot be influenced by changes in climate.
The typical population size of a species in a certain ecosystem is referred to as carrying capacity. Environmental elements like sufficient food, shelter, water, and mates also serve as population limits for some animals. The population will decline until the resource recovers if these needs are not satisfied.
The greatest population, density, or biomass that a particular area can sustainably support is known as carrying capacity. This probably changes through time and is influenced by the environment, available resources, and the existence of predators, pathogens, and rivals,The carrying capacity of an ecosystem is influenced by numerous factors. Food supply, water supply, habitat space, competition (intraspecific and interspecific), physical variables (such as excessive heat, drought, etc.), chemical factors (such as pH, mineral deficiency, etc.), and anthropogenic influences are among them.
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evaluate this statement: according to the two-domain hypothesis, all members of the domain archaea are prokaryotes and therefore lack membrane-bound nuclei. is this statement true? evaluate this statement: according to the two-domain hypothesis, all members of the domain archaea are prokaryotes and therefore lack membrane-bound nuclei. is this statement true? it is false because archaea include only eukaryotes. unlike prokaryotes, eukaryotes do have membrane-bound nuclei. it is false because archaea include both prokaryotes and eukaryotes. and unlike prokaryotes, eukaryotes do have membrane-bound nuclei. it is true because archaea include eocytes. like other prokaryotes, eocytes do not have membrane-bound nuclei. it is true because archaea include only prokaryotes.
According to the to the two-domain hypothesis, Archaea includes prokaryotes and eukaryotes. Although prokaryotes lack nuclei, eukaryotic cells possess nuclei.
The two-domain system is a method of biological taxonomy that divides all living things into the two broad categories of bacteria and archaea. It came about as a result of advances in our understanding of the diversity of archaea and a disagreement with the widely used three-domain approach that divides life into Bacteria, Archaea, and Eukarya.
The Euocytes theory was revived in the 2000s as a result of improved understanding of archaea, particularly in relation to their roles in the creation of eukaryotes through symbiogenesis with bacteria.
The two-domain approach gained popularity after the discovery of a sizable group of archaea dubbed Asgard, evidence of which suggests that eukaryotes are members of the domain Archaea and may have evolved from them.
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chrysanthemums have a haploid chromosome number of 9. how many chromosomes are found in tetraploid ch
The number of haploid chromosomes in chrysanthemums is 9. species of tetraploid chrysanthemum has the most chromosomes. A tetraploid chrysanthemum has 36 chromosomes total, consisting of 4 sets of 9 chromosomes. Tetraploidy is a very uncommon type of polyploidy in which each chromosome has four copies instead of two, giving rise to 92 chromosomes overall in each cell. Tetraploid organisms, denoted by the symbol 4n, include all creatures that have four copies of each of their chromosomes. Wheat, cotton, and Brussels sprouts are some examples. Colchicine, an alkaloid, is given to a branch's terminal bud in order to create a tetraploid plant. Tetraploid (4n) cells with four sets of chromosomes will make up every single cell in the developing branch. Included are the stem, leaf, flower, and fruit cells.
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in animals, what is the difference between reproductive cloning and therapeutic cloning?
In, Reproductive cloning copies of whole animals are produced. While in Therapeutic cloning embryonic stem cells are produced for certain experiment.
In general ,Reproductive Cloning are responsible for generating genetic copies of entire organisms. While ,Therapeutic Cloning are used for making genetic copies of tissues or organs that helps to replace the damaged body parts.
Therapeutic cloning is done by transferring of the nuclear material that were isolated from the somatic cell present in the enucleated oocyte. This results in formation of cloned cells they remain on the dish in the lab and not implanted into a female's uterus.
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the following sequence of dna is the normal, wild-type gene: 5' tac cgg tta gtt agc cga tag 3' an insertion occurs during dna replication, causing an additional adenine to be inserted into the nucleotide strand after the guanine shown in red. what effect will this have on the final protein?
The correct response is C ; That adding the A will lead to a frameshift, which will result in an early stop codon and a shortened protein.
1. The definition of a frameshift mutation is an insertion or deletion of any nucleotide in the genome that is not in multiples of three nucleotides that can code for any amino acid.
2. An insertional frameshift mutation is present in the case described. The shortened protein and insertional frameshift mutation are created as follows:
3. The mRNA produced from the provided sequence demonstrates that the stop codon develops early and a brief protein known as a truncated protein is produced.
4. A truncated protein is nothing more than a brief protein created by a mutation in which premature termination occurs.
5. As a result, adding adenine after guanine will result in an insertional frameshift mutation, which will shorten the protein and trigger an early stop codon.
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Full Question ;
The following sequence of dna is the normal, wild-type gene: 5' tac cgg tta gtt agc cga tag 3' an insertion occurs during dna replication, causing an additional adenine to be inserted into the nucleotide strand after the guanine shown in red. what effect will this have on the final protein?
A The addition of the A will cause a single amino acid substitution in the codon in which it occurs.
B The addition of the A will cause a frame shift, so that all the amino acids after the mutation will change. The protein will be a normal number of amino acids.
C The addition of the A will cause a frame shift, resulting in a premature stop codon and a truncated protein.
D The addition of the A will cause a frame shift, resulting in the loss of the normal stop codon and an abnormally long protein with an altered amino acid sequence.
multigene families include two or more nearly identical genes or genes sharing nearly identical sequences. a classical example is the set of genes for globin molecules, including genes on human chromosomes 11 and 16. how might identical and obviously duplicated gene sequences have gotten from one chromosome to another?
By chromosomal translocation, identical and redundant gene sequences have moved from one chromosome to another.
What does chromosomal translocation refer to?When a chromosome splits and the two fragments reassociate with different chromosomes, the process is known as a translocation. For the identification of some genetic illnesses and syndromes, the detection of chromosomal translocations is crucial.
Chromosome translocation, which can be balanced or unbalanced and comes in two primary varieties—reciprocal and Robertsonian—is a condition in genetics that causes an unusual rearrangement of chromosomes.
Translocations are reciprocal in nature since they are the outcome of chromosomal arm exchange across heterologous chromosomes. These translocations require DNA double-strand breaks.
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sort the molecules in the glycolysis pathway based on whether they are intermediates or products in the first half of the pathway that requires energy, or are intermediates in the second half of the pathway that produces energy.
a. glucose-6-phosphate b. fructose-6-phosphate c. fructose-1,6-bisphosphate d. glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate e. dihydroxyacetone phosphate f. 1,3-bisphosphoglycerate g. 3-phosphoglycerate h. 2-phosphoglycerate i. phosphoenolpyruvate
1. Intermediate in the first half of the pathway
2. Intermediate in the second half of the pathway
Since these six are intermediates in the second half of the route that generates energy, glucose six phosphate is the answer that best fits the facts.
What is the first intermediate molecule created during glycolysis?In a series of processes that each require two ATP, glucose is first transformed into fructose-1,6-bisphosphate. Next, unstable fructose-1,6-bisphosphate breaks in half, resulting in the formation of the three-carbon molecules DHAP and glyceraldehyde-3-phosphae.
What four end products does glycolysis produce?One glucose molecule is converted into two pyruvate (pyruvic acid) molecules, four ATP molecules, and two NADH molecules during the process of glycolysis. ATP, produced via substrate-level phosphorylation, NADH, produced by REDOX processes, and pyruvate molecules are the three primary products of glycolysis.
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