The eligible staff members will vote on the subject. By allowing citizens to participate in the policy making processes that impact socioeconomic determinants of health, voting fosters democracy and improves health.
Voting results have a significant impact on how policies are formed among staff members, but perceptions of public opinion come first. They may put in overtime, on the weekends, and on holidays. They might be on call, which would require them to be on duty and readily accessible for work at any time. Nurses are more likely to have normal business hours if they work in establishments like offices, schools, and other locations that do not offer 24-hour care.
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a nurse has completed 4 hours of an 8-hour shift on a medical-surgical unit when the nursing supervisor calls. the nursing supervisor directs the nurse to give a report to the other two nurses on the medical-surgical unit and immediately report to the telemetry unit to assist with staff needs on that unit. the nurse informs the supervisor that the nurse has been busy with client assignments and feels this will overwhelm the nurses on the medical-surgical unit. the supervisor informs the nurse that the need is greater on the telemetry unit. this is an example of which type of ethical problem?
This given example suggests ethical problem related to proper Allocation of scarce nursing resources.
Since the nurse has to look after two jobs which carry equal importance according to her, her confrontation to the supervisor is valid. However, supervisor on the other hand is unaware of the actual medical conditions of the patient and finds that the requirement of staff in telemetry unit carries greater importance so he directs the nurse to report in the telemetry unit. In healthcare system though electronic facilities have made things easier to do, yet when the nurses themselves are not properly trained to operate the machines, they might find it difficult to complete their duties. Telemetry units in hospitals are the facilitative units where patients are under constant electronic monitoring.
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the nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed medication to a client diagnosed with gerd. if the nurse discovers the client has a history of vitamin b12, which medication(s) will the nurse administer cautiously? select all that apply.
Rabeprazole and Pantoprazole medication. Insufficient red blood cells prevent your tissues and organs from receiving enough oxygen.
Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, and duodenal ulcers are all conditions that are treated with rabeprazole. Additionally, it can be used in conjunction with medicationlike amoxicillin and clarithromycin to treat ulcers brought on by bacterial infections. Only disorders like Zollinger Ellison syndrome, which are characterized by very high stomach acid output, are suggested for pantoprazole 40 mg twice a day, and people with these illnesses should be under a doctor's supervision.
The complete question is:
The nurse is preparing to administer a prescribed medication to a client diagnosed with gerd. if the nurse discovers the client has a history of vitamin b12, which medication(s) will the nurse administer cautiously? select all that apply.
Rabeprazole
Diphenoxylate
Pantoprazole
Difenoxin
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1) the community nurse is preparing to visit the home of an adolescent who is 18 weeks pregnant. which health problems should the nurse focus on when assessing this patient?[
health problems should the nurse focus on when assessing this patient are Preeclampsia, Preterm birth, Low-birth-weight, Iron deficiency anemia
By informing health problems for mothers about the advantages of healthy eating, enough sleep, good hygiene, family planning, exclusive breastfeeding, immunization, and other disease Preterm birth prevention during the antenatal period, you can enhance the well-being of the women in your care as well as the health of their Preterm birth babies before and after birth. Iron deficiency anemia is more likely to occur if you're pregnant. Insufficient healthy red blood cells prevent enough oxygen from reaching the body's tissues in those with iron deficiency anemia.
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during an assessment of an 80-year-old patient, the nurse notices the following: an inability to identify vibrations at her ankle and to identify the position of her big toe, a slower, more deliberate gait, and a slightly impaired tactile sensation. all other neurologic findings are normal. how should the nurse interpret these findings? during an assessment of an 80-year-old patient, the nurse notices the following: an inability to identify vibrations at her ankle and to identify the position of her big toe, a slower, more deliberate gait, and a slightly impaired tactile sensation. all other neurologic findings are normal. how should the nurse interpret these findings? the findings are related to demyelination of peripheral nerves the findings are likely related to a lesion in the cerebellum the findings are related to sympathetic nervous system dysfunction the findings are normal changes in the neurologic system due to aging
The nurse should interpret from these findings that it indicates normal changes attributable to aging that is option C is correct.
When a person grows older many of his body functions do not function in the way they should normally function. Their vision becomes weak, heart rate becomes somewhat slow, blood pressure alters and even their joints become weak. These things are natural as with aging these things are common in older people. The bones of the older people also become weak with their increasing age. So the nurse finding such imparities within a 80-year old patient is natural as his ankles, bones, toe and also some pacing functions were not working properly due to the effect of aging.
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Complete Question:
During an assessment of an 80-year-old patient, the nurse notices the following: an inability to identify vibrations at her ankle and to identify the position of her big toe, a slower and more deliberate gait, and a slightly impaired tactile sensation. All other neurologic findings are normal. The nurse should interpret that these findings indicate:
a. CN dysfunction.
b. Lesion in the cerebral cortex.
c. Normal changes attributable to aging.
d. Demyelination of nerves attributable to a lesion.
the nurse is helping the client prepare for discharge after a severe case of food poisoning. the client has been tolerating feedings, and the health care provider would like the client to advance to a soft diet for the next week until the next office visit. when the client asks why the provider is prescribing a soft diet, how should the nurse respond?
Reduce intestinal activity to aid in healing after food poison. The BRAT diet includes the items that are typically advised to eat after the stomach flu, food poisoning, or a typical stomach discomfort.
BRAT stands for bread, bananas, rice, and applesauce. These particular foods are the best since they are bland and simple to digest. It also takes time for the intestines to recover. A virus that inflames your stomach and intestines is what causes this intestinal illness. Although there is no cure for this viral illness, you may take precautions to be healthy. The easiest way to prevent gastroenteritis is to wash your hands often and thoroughly. Since the stomach flu is communicable and usually develops after contact with an infected individual, prevention is crucial.
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what statement made by an older adult client is associated with a problem identified as the greatest source of concern among members of that population?
The statement made by an older adult client is associated with a problem identified as the greatest source of concern among members of that population is "I don't have much control over my life anymore."
The term "population" refers to all citizens who are either continuously residing in a nation or are just temporarily away from it. This indicator displays the population of a certain area on a regular basis.
The life experiences of older adult are frequently unknowable, unexpected, inevitable, and even unwelcome or frightening. As a result, elderly people may feel a greater loss of control or dread of losing control over their life. The dread of having little or no control over one's life overrides the other claims, which do describe genuine problems for the elderly population.
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as part of his role at the local hospital, jake is reviewing joint commission standards to ensure that the organization is meeting the accreditation requirements. as part of the review, jake is looking at a specific set of standards that are primarily focused on documentation. some of the standard requirements include care provided, procedures that were done on the patient, and the progress of the patient. based on this scenario, which set of joint commission standards is jake reviewing?
Jake is reviewing the Record of care standards which is a set of joint
commission standards.
What are Joint Commission standards?
Joint Commission standards are a set of guidelines and requirements that healthcare organizations must adhere to in order to receive and maintain accreditation from The Joint Commission. These standards are based on evidence-based best practices and are regularly updated to reflect current healthcare trends. The standards are intended to ensure that patients receive safe and high-quality care and that organizations are managed in a responsible and ethical manner. The standards cover topics such as patient rights and responsibilities, staff qualifications, patient assessment and care planning, and environment of care.
What is the Record of Care standards ?
The Record of Care Standards are standards for the recording and maintenance of health and social care records. They are designed to ensure that records are accurate, consistent, and up-to-date. The standards cover the content, format, and security of records, as well as the transfer of information between different providers of health and social care services. The standards are based on the principles of openness, transparency, and accountability, and help to ensure that records are kept securely and information is shared appropriately.
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you are alone and performing cycles of 5 back blows and 5 abdominal thrusts on a conscious child who is choking. this child becomes unconscious after a minute or two. you gently lower the child to the floor. what is the next thing you should do?
If the child with choking (foreign body airway obstruction) is, or becomes, unconscious, move to treatment with the paediatric basic life support algorithm.
Paediatric Basic Life Support
1. After lower the child to the floor, call for help if it is still not available
2. Check airway opening: When the airway is opened for attempted delivery of rescue breaths, look to see if the foreign body can be seen in the mouth. If an object is seen, attempt to remove it with a single finger sweep. Do not attempt blind or repeated finger sweeps – these can push the object more deeply into the pharynx and cause injury.
3. Rescue breaths: Open the airway and attempt 5 rescue breaths. Assess the effectiveness of each breath: if a breath does not make the chest rise, reposition the head before making the next attempt. Proceed immediately to chest compression regardless of whether the breaths are successful and perform CPR.
4. Chest compression and CPR: Continue with paediatric BLS using a C:V ratio of 15:2 until help arrives or child improves.
If the child regains consciousness and is breathing effectively, place them in a safe side-lying (recovery) position and monitor breathing and conscious level whilst awaiting the arrival of the ambulance.
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he nurse is talking with the parents of a child who has a tracheoesophageal fistula. which information should be provided? select one: a. a nasogastric tube will be inserted for feeding. b. the infant should be provided a pacifier. c. the infant will have tpn for nutrition. d. the infant will need a special feeder that goes to the back of the mouth.
The nurse is talking with the parents of a child who has a tracheoesophageal fistula a nasogastric tube will be inserted for feeding.
What causes tracheoesophageal fistula?Having an improper contact between your stomach or trachea is known as a tracheoesophageal fistula (TEF). Congenital indicates that the condition developed while the fetus was still developing. TEF can also develop as an adult as a result of malignancy, an infection, or trauma.
Tracheoesophageal fistula: is it curable?The majority of the perforation cannot be surgically treated. Additionally, medical intervention is ineffective in curing the illness. In medicine, treating TEF is a constant struggle. Stenting is by far the best way to close the fistula.
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an older adult client is diagnosed with sundown syndrome. what nursing action should the nurse perform to address this syndrome?
Provide physical activity in the afternoon.
Sundowning, also known as sundown syndrome, is a neurological condition characterized by increased confusion and restlessness in people suffering from delirium or another form of dementia. It is most commonly associated with Alzheimer's disease, but it can also be found in other types of dementia.
The term "sundowning" was coined by nurse Lois K. Evans in 1987 due to the timing of the person's increased confusion beginning in the late afternoon and early evening. For people with sundown syndrome, a slew of behavioral issues emerge and are linked to long-term negative outcomes. Sundowning appears to be more common in the middle stages of Alzheimer's disease and mixed dementia, and it appears to diminish as the person's dementia progresses.
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which therapy focuses heavily on creating an accepting and supportive environment for self-discovery?
a client reports experiencing increased stress at work. the client has been managing the stress by drinking 2 or 3 glasses of wine per evening. despite the nurse recommending that drinking alcohol is not an effective way to manage the stress, the client feels it will be difficult to stop drinking. which statement explains why this will be difficult for the client?
The habit of stopping alcohol consumption will be difficult for the client because the client has no adaptive coping mechanisms, which suggests option D is the right answer.
The client is experiencing undue pressure and anxiety due to which he has resorted to drinking but this is certainly not a correct way of dealing with such situations. Anxiety is the condition of feeling of uneasiness, such as worry or fear which causes restlessness and irritation. The better option would be to communicate with senior management to find out better ways of work distribution so that it does not become a hectic schedule. Also spending some leisure time would be effective. The nurse should not ask the client to give up coping mechanisms, even maladaptive ones, without offering other adaptive mechanisms.
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To refer to complete question, see below:
A client reports the client has been experiencing increased stress at work. The client has been managing the stress by drinking 2-3 glasses of wine per evening. Despite the nurse recommending that drinking alcohol is not an effective way to manage the stress, the client reports it is unlikely that the client will be able to stop. Which statement explains why this will be difficult for the client?
A few glasses of wine each night is not necessarily a problem.Drinking alcohol is more socially acceptable than taking medications.The client is probably physically dependent on alcohol.The client has no adaptive coping mechanisms.the nurse is teaching a mother about the developmental behaviors of a 7-month-old infant. which statement by the mother indicates effective learning? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
A)"I should start oral hygiene in my child."C)"I should call my child by her name."D)"I should not leave the child with an unfamiliar relative."the nurse is teaching a mother about the developmental behaviors of a 7-month-old infant.
The term "hygiene" refers to practises that promote cleanliness and promote health, such as routine handwashing, maintaining a clean face, and taking a warm, soapy shower. Better cleanliness promotes health, self-confidence, and general development. In order to stop the spread of infectious illnesses and ensure that children enjoy long, healthy lives, good cleanliness is essential. Additionally, it keeps students from skipping class, which enhances their academic performance.One of the strongest defences against gastroenteritis or infectious disorders like COVID-19, the common cold, and the flu is good personal cleanliness. You may avoid becoming sick by washing your hands with soap. You may reduce your risk of infecting others by practising proper personal hygiene.
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vitamin c is important for collagen synthesis. which area of the skin would be most affected if there is a deficiency in vitamin c?
Reticular layer of dermis would be most affected if there is a deficiency in vitamin C.
Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid and ascorbate, is a water-soluble vitamin found in citrus and other fruits and vegetables. It is also available as a dietary supplement and as a topical 'serum' ingredient to treat melasma (dark pigment spots) and facial wrinkles. It is used to treat and prevent scurvy. Vitamin C is an essential nutrient that aids in tissue repair, collagen formation, and the enzymatic production of certain neurotransmitters.
Fatigue, depression, and connective tissue defects are among the symptoms (eg, gingivitis, petechiae, rash, internal bleeding, impaired wound healing). Bone growth in infants and children may be hampered. Clinical diagnosis is usually used. The treatment consists of taking vitamin C orally.
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which condition or disorder is the most debilitating for the patient who has it? explain your answer. how does the condition or disorder affect the normal function or structure of the circulatory system? if you were a cardiologist, which condition or disorder do you think would be the easiest to treat? which one would be the most difficult to treat? why?
Coronary artery blockage resulting in myocardial infarction is the condition that is most incapacitating.
What is Myocardial infarction?
Myocardial infarction, often known as a heart attack, is a condition where the blood supply to the heart is impaired, impairing both its function and the flow of oxygen-rich blood to the body.
When a myocardial infarction occurs, the heart's normal cardiac output, which is 5 litres per minute, is diminished because the heart's muscles are unable to contract because they are obtaining insufficient oxygen.
Elevation of the ST segment is one ECG alteration.
Nitroglycerin can be used to treat a patient with stable angina or angina that flares up after exercise if it is discovered early.
Myocardial Infarctionand Cardiomyopathies would be the most challenging to cure.
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consumption of raw egg whites is related to deficiency of what vitamin that likely caused rocky to lose to apollo creed?
Consumption of raw egg whites is related to deficiency of biotin vitamin that likely caused rocky to lose to Apollo creed.
One of the B vitamins is biotin (or vitamin B7). It is involved in a variety of metabolic processes in both humans and other organisms, primarily those involving the utilization of fats, carbohydrates, and amino acids.
Biotin is a heterocyclic compound that contains a sulfur-containing ring fused ureido and tetrahydrothiophene group. One of the rings has a C5-carboxylic acid side chain attached to it. The carbon dioxide carrier in carboxylation reactions is the ureido ring, which contains the NCON group. Biotin is a coenzyme for five carboxylase enzymes that are involved in amino acid and fatty acid catabolism, fatty acid synthesis, and gluconeogenesis. Histone protein biotinylation in nuclear chromatin influences chromatin stability and gene expression.
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the nurse is testing superficial reflexes on an adult patient. when stroking up the lateral side of the sole and across the ball of the foot, the nurse notices plantar flexion of the toes. how should the nurse interpret this finding?
Plantar reflex present. The nurse should make a light, upside-down "J"-shaped stroke with the same tool across the ball of the foot and up the lateral side of the sole.
The typical reaction is plantar flexion of the toes, and occasionally the entire foot. When the big toe responds by dorsiflexing and all other toes fan out, the Babinski sign is positive, which is abnormal. A 0 to 4+ scale is not used to grade the plantar reflex. In patients who are unconscious or who may have suffered injuries to the lumbar 5-5 or sacral 1-2 regions of the spinal cord, the plantar reflex is the only superficial reaction that should be evaluated. With the handle of a reflex hammer or a tongue blade, stimulate the bottom of the foot.
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a patient who has experienced previous jaw and face trauma now reports difficulty tasting with the tip of her tongue. which cranial nerve was likely damaged in that injury?
The cranial nerve most likely damaged in a patient who has experienced previous jaw and face trauma and now reports difficulty tasting with the tip of her tongue is the facial nerve (VII).
The facial nerve is responsible for controlling various facial muscles, as well as for providing sensation to the face, including the sense of taste.The facial nerve (VII) is a mixed nerve, meaning that it contains both sensory and motor fibers. The sensory fibers carry information from the face to the brain, such as the sense of taste. The motor fibers control the muscles of facial expression, such as those used for smiling or frowning. Damage to the facial nerve can cause a variety of symptoms, including difficulty tasting and muscle weakness in the face.
In the case of the patient with previous jaw and face trauma, it is likely that the facial nerve was damaged in the injury. This is because trauma to the face can easily injure the facial nerve, resulting in the patient’s difficulty tasting with the tip of her tongue. Injury to the facial nerve can also cause muscle weakness in the face, which is a common symptom of facial nerve damage.
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when the nurse is conducting the client's cognitive function, which components of the mental status exam best assesses the client's cognition? (select all that apply. one, some, or all options may be correct.)
The nurse is managing the client's distant memory and cognitive performance. The client's cognition is best evaluated using elements of the mental status examination.
Cognitive processes provide us the ability to complete any task. They provide the subject the opportunity to actively participate in the gathering, selecting, altering, storing, processing, and retrieval of information, enabling the subject to move around his environment. Free Trial of NeuronUP Exercises. You must use your intuition, creativity, expertise, and understanding while working with any new customer in order to meet their specific requirements and assist them in achieving their goals. When working with individuals who have developmental or cognitive impairments, these abilities are even more crucial.
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ultrasound of intensity 175 w/m2 is produced by the rectangular head of a medical imaging device measuring 3.00 cm by 6.00 cm. what is the power output of the device?
1968.75x10^-4 w is the power output of the device at ultrasound of intensity 175 w/m2 is produced by the rectangular head of a medical imaging device measuring 3.00 cm by 6.00 cm.
let given,
ultrasound of Intensity = 175 W/m²
Area ,A = 4.572.5x10^-4 m²
power, p = ?
Intensity = power / Area
power = Intensity x Area
P = IXA
P = 175 W/m² X 4.572.5x10^-4 m²
P = 1968.75x10^-4 w
the power output will be 1968.75x10^-4 w
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in the context of associating cardiovascular diseases with stress, who is most likely to suffer from a cardiovascular disease?
A person working on difficult projects for months is most likely to suffer from a cardiovascular disease.
Cardiovascular disease (CVD) refers to a group of diseases that affect the heart or blood vessels. CVD includes coronary artery disease (CAD), which includes angina and myocardial infarction (commonly known as a heart attack). Stroke, heart failure, hypertensive heart disease, rheumatic heart disease, cardiomyopathy, abnormal heart rhythms, congenital heart disease, valvular heart disease, carditis, aortic aneurysms, peripheral artery disease, thromboembolic disease, and venous thrombosis are among the other CVDs.
High blood pressure, high LDL cholesterol, diabetes, smoking and secondhand smoke exposure, obesity, an unhealthy diet, and physical inactivity are all major risk factors for heart disease and stroke.
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the nurse is assigned to care for a group of patients. on review of the patient's medical records, the nurse determines which patient is most likely at risk for fluid volume deficit?
A client with an ileostomy patient is most likely at risk for fluid volume deficit . Thus correct option(a).
A fluid volume deficit occurs when the fluid intake is not sufficient to meet the fluid needs of the body.
Causes of a fluid volume deficit include vomiting, diarrhea, conditions that cause increased respirations or increased urinary output, insufficient intravenous fluid replacement, draining fistulas, and the presence of an ileostomy or colostomy. A client with heart failure or on long-term corticosteroid therapy or a client receiving frequent wound irrigations is most at risk for fluid volume excess.
How do you fix fluid deficit?
The simplest approach is to replace dehydration losses with 0.9% saline. This ensures that the administered fluid remains in the extracellular (intravascular) compartment, where it will do the most good to support blood pressure and peripheral perfusion.
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Full Question:The nurse is assigned to care for a group of clients. On review of the clients' medical records, the nurse determines that which client is most likely at risk for a fluid volume deficit?
1. A client with an ileostomy
2. A client with heart failure
3. A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy
4. A client receiving frequent wound irrigations
a pregnant woman is yawning excessively, is diaphoretic, and is experiencing nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis, and diarrhea. the nurse suspects that the woman may be withdrawing from which substance?
A pregnant woman is yawning excessively, is diaphoretic, and is experiencing nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis, and diarrhea. The nurse suspects that the woman may be withdrawing from Pica which is a eating disorder.
A person with a pica which is a eating disorder compulsively consumes items that aren't food and serve no nutritional or functional purpose. Pica can be natural, expected, and harmless depending on when and why a person does it. If a person with this illness eats something toxic or hazardous, it could lead to serious issues. With pica, a person eats compulsively things that aren't food and don't provide any nutrients. People who have this illness struggle mightily to suppress the impulse on their own since it is compulsive. Depending on the non-food item(s) a person consumes, pica can have a variety of impacts. Pica is a safe pregnancy-related activity for people who consume things like ice.
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radiological supervision and interpretation codes are applicable to the radiation oncology subsection. t or f
The statement is false regarding radiological supervision and interpretation codes.
What is radiation oncology?Codes are used to describe the personal supervision of a specific performance related to the radiologic component of a process that is in order of one or more doctors, as well as the interpretation of the observations.
One of the medical specialties that deals with the use of imaging technologies in the diagnosis and treatment of numerous cancer-causing disorders is radiology. Diagnostic radiology and another sort of interventional radiology are two of the divisions made in the field of radiology. Specialists in the discipline of radiology are known as radiologists.
These imaging data are used in diagnostic radiology to diagnose a variety of illnesses, such as blood clots, heart disorders, and fractured bones. Contrarily, interventional radiology use imaging techniques like CT scans, MRIs, and ultrasounds to direct specific medical treatments.
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a client who has been prescribed fluoxetine for depression and has just had the dosage increased comes to the emergency department. the nurse suspects serotonin syndrome based on which assessment? select all that apply.
Change in mental state, Ataxia, Diaphoresis, and Fever are among the observations that lead the nurse to suspect serotonin syndrome prescribed fluoxetine .
Serotonin syndrome symptoms include altered mental state, autonomic dysfunction, and anomalies of the neuromuscular system. Mental status changes, agitation, myoclonus, hyperreflexia, fever, shivering, diaphoresis, ataxia, and diarrhea must all be present for a diagnosis with fluoxetine . The Serotonin syndrome most common cause of the potentially fatal neurological illness neuroleptic malignant syndrome is an unfavorable response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medications. Serotonin syndrome High temperature, perspiration, unstable blood pressure, sluggishness, tightness of the muscles, and autonomic dysfunction are among the symptoms.
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dr. jokocha gave ken a phenothiazine to reduce his hallucinations, but the doctor then realized that the medication caused muscular tremors similar to those in parkinson's disease. dr. jokocha concluded that ken's psychosis was related to excessive:
dr. Jokocha gave Ken phenothiazines to reduce his hallucinations, but the drugs caused tremors like Parkinson's. Doctors concluded that Ken's psychosis was related to an excess of dopamine.
What is the link between Parkinson's disease and psychosis?Hallucinations and delusions in patients with complications of Parkinson's disease are often referred to as Parkinson's disease psychosis. Psychosis is quite common in people with complications of Parkinson's, especially in the late stages of the disease.
It is estimated that up to 50 percent of people will present with Parkinson's complications. Psychotic symptoms of Parkinson's are associated with high levels of a neurotransmitter known as dopamine.
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mary takes her progestin-only contraceptive pill at 8:00 every morning, but today she did not remember to take it until 3:00 in the afternoon. what should she do?
Take a pill now, then take the next pill as scheduled, but use a backup method for 48 hours.
If a pill is missed by at least three hours and is a progestin-only contraceptive, the following should be done, according to the manufacturer.As soon as you realise you forgot to take a tablet, take it. Take your progestin-only contraception at your normal schedule after that.Oral contraceptives include the progestin-only birth control pill, sometimes referred to as the minipill (birth control pill). Only progestin is present in trace amounts in each progestin-only pill (which is a synthetic form of the hormone progesterone). There is no oestrogen in these pills. 1 The MiniPill is available only in 28-day packs.One type of birth control pill is a progestin-only contraceptive. The "mini-pill" is another name for it. Estrogen and progesterone are the two female hormones found in typical birth control pills. The only substance in the mini-pill is progesterone.To know more about Contraceptive check the below link:
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the nurse has just administered an opioid antagonist to a client who had been experiencing respiratory depression. how soon can the nurse expect to see improvement in the client's respiratory function?
The nurse administered an opioid antagonist to a client who had been experiencing respiratory depression. Within one to five minutes an effect may be seen on the patient.
Opioid analgesics are used to treat pain that ranges from moderate to severe. The most effective drug for treating severe pain is morphine. Because there is no "limit effect," or increase in analgesia with dose, it is also frequently used to treat cancer pain and end-of-life pain. Hydromorphone and fentanyl are two more drugs that may be given via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA), in addition to morphine. The patient presses a button on a PCA device to receive the opioid; this releases a predetermined dose and also has a lockout mechanism to prevent an overdose.
The complete question is:
The nurse has just administered an opioid antagonist to a client who had been experiencing respiratory depression. How soon can the nurse expect to see improvement in the client's respiratory function?
a) Within one to five minutes, an effect may be seen.
b) Slow improvement can be noted throughout the shift.
c) Response is highly individualized based upon client weight.
d) Improvement will occur within 30 minutes from the time of administration.
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which assessment will the nurse make for a patient is prescribed metformin for treatment of type 2 diabetes
The nurse will assess Renal function.
Type 2 diabetes, also known as adult-onset diabetes, is a type of diabetes characterized by high blood sugar levels, insulin resistance, and a relative lack of insulin. Increased thirst, frequent urination, and unexplained weight loss are common symptoms. Symptoms may also include increased hunger, fatigue, and unhealed sores. Symptoms frequently appear gradually.
Long-term complications of diabetes include heart disease, strokes, diabetic retinopathy (which can lead to blindness), kidney failure, and poor blood flow in the limbs, which can lead to amputations. Although a sudden onset of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state is possible, ketoacidosis is uncommon.
Because metformin is excreted by the kidneys, the patient's renal function must be evaluated. If the patient's kidneys are unable to excrete the drug, it will build up in their system, causing lactic acidosis. Metformin does not cause headaches. Weight loss, not weight gain, is one of metformin's side effects. Some diabetic patients may have high cholesterol levels, which can be treated with medications and lifestyle changes.
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How many cup-equivalents from foods in the dairy group are recommended for adults each day?
Answer: 3 cup equivalent
Explanation: