the prey of one species might also be the predator of another species.; what will happen to an ecosystem that is experiencing a prolonged drought?; what distinguishes rainforests from temperate forests?; which shows the correct order of increasing trophic level, from producer to tertiary consumer?; how does biodiversity affect the stability of an ecosystem?; how does an ecosystem transition from primary succession to secondary succession?; which ecosystems would you expect to have the greatest access to sunlight?; explain why quaternary consumers occupy the top position in the pyramid of energy.

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Answer 1

When an ecosystem experiences a lengthy drought, the available resources are insufficient to maintain the organisms' population, thus they will either move or start to perish. An ecosystem's population will fluctuate depending on the amount of water available.

When there are too many predators and not enough prey, predators starve to death because they are unable to find adequate food. An overabundance of prey and a dearth of predators contribute to the development of disease and the depletion of resources for prey species and other species that live in their ecosystem.

Because they control the numbers of their prey, predators are crucial to ecosystems. In the absence of predators, prey can overpopulate. In addition to causing disease outbreaks that may spread to domesticated animals, this may also cause harm to nearby flora.

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a mutation that occurs in a somatic cell in an organism will most likely be transferred to

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Somatic mutations occur in non-reproductive cells and are passed down through mitosis to daughter cells.

What is somatic mutations?A DNA change that occurs after conception. Somatic mutations can occur in any cell of the body except germ cells (sperm and egg) and are thus not passed down to children. These changes can (but do not always) result in cancer or other diseases.A somatic mutation occurs in body cells but is not passed down to future generations. A mutation that affects the gamete or the cell that produces gametes is distinct in that it affects the offspring while having no effect on the adult.Somatic mutations are a normal part of aging and occur throughout the life cycle of an organism, either spontaneously as a result of errors in DNA repair mechanisms or as a direct response to stress.

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a____part of a chromosome in a cell that controls a particular characteristic such as height or eye color. they are passed from parents to their offspring.

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A gene part of a chromosome in a cell that controls a particular characteristic such as height or eye color. they are passed from parents to their offspring.

A genotype is a collection of alleles that determine a trait and can be described as a phenotype. The transmission of traits from parents to offspring is called heredity, and it is possible to predict which traits will be inherited. Within these 23 pairs of chromosomes are specific sections that determine various physical characteristics.

These strings of DNA contain information that determines physical characteristics and is called genes. Within the nucleus of every cell, DNA molecules are packaged into thread-like structures called chromosomes. Looking at a picture of a cell, the nucleus is one of the most obvious parts of the cell. the middle of the cell.

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a lumbar puncture removes a sample of cerebral spinal fluid for diagnostic testing. at what level of the vertebral column should a lumbar puncture be performed?

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The interspinous region between L4 and L5, as well as between L3 and L4, are the best places for the spinal needle to be inserted. Using these markers will prevent unintentional harm to the conus medullaris, which normally ends at L1.

The spinal cord runs from the bottom portion of the brain to the upper lumbar region. In the lower lumbar region, below the point where the spinal cord terminates, a spinal tap is performed. So, there is no chance of spinal cord damage. In order to widen the interlaminar gaps, the patient is positioned in the lateral recumbent posture (see the illustration below). The head may be supported by a cushion.

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which of the following statements correctly describes one of the main differences between embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells? a. embryonic stem cells only differentiate into only eggs and sperm, and adult stem cells differentiate into any type of cell. b. embryonic stem cells can give rise to all cell types in the organism, and adult stem cells cannot. c. embryonic stem cells can continue to reproduce for an indefinite period, and adult stem cells cannot. d. one aim of using embryonic stem cells is to provide cells for repair of diseased tissue.

Answers

The statement embryonic stem cells can give rise to all cell types in the organism, and adult stem cells cannot correctly describes one of the main differences between embryonic stem cells and adult stem cells (Option b).

What are embryonic stem cells?

Embryonic stem cells are a special class of undifferentiated stem cells that are used by the body to generate all the tissues, while adult stem cells can only produce a particular class.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that embryonic stem cells are different from adult stem call since they originate all classes of cells.

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microbiology you are doing research on a bacterial species, trying to determine the shape, distribution, and arrangement of a number of filamentous structures that protrude from the cell surface. which type of microscopy would best enable you to do this? transmission electron microscopy scanning electron microscopy bright-field microscopy dark-field microscopy

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The type of microscopy that would best enable you to do this is transmission electron microscopy.

How would you examine the composition of a bacterial biofilm on a glass slide using microscopy?

Scanning electron microscope used in the past (SEM) The best techniques for biofilm visualization are conventional SEM and FESEM if high magnification and high-resolution pictures are required to precisely define biofilm morphology.

Which microscope provides the clearest images of undamaged cell and viral surfaces?

The identification and description of viruses have long been accomplished using electron microscopy (EM). Since the late 19th century, organisms smaller than bacteria have been known to exist (11), but it wasn't until the invention of the electron microscope that a virus was first observed under one of these instruments.

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true or false? the blind spot in vertebrate eyes is a region of the retina that contains no photoreceptors.

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The given statement is true. The blind spot in vertebrate eyes is a region of the retina that contains no photoreceptors.

Blind spot: A tiny area of each eye's visual field that is associated with the location of the optic disk, also referred to as the optic nerve head, within the retina. The optic disk lacks photoreceptors (i.e., rods or cones) and is hence devoid of image detection.

Right-eye blind spots are to the right of the center of vision, and left-eye blind spots are the opposite. Since the two eyes' visual fields overlap while both are open, the blind spots are not visible. Because the brain has the ability to "fill in" or disregard the missing area of the image, the blind spot can be challenging to subjectively identify even with one eye closed.

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A dog cell has 20% potassium, 30 % iodine, and 50% plasma. The solution the cell is sitting in has 10% plasma, 20% potassium, and 70% iodine. The membrane is only allowing facilitated diffusion to take place with potassium. What will happen to the dog cell (dok 2)?.

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A dog cell has 20% potassium, 30 % iodine, and 50% plasma. The solution the cell is sitting in has 10% plasma, 20% potassium, and 70% iodine. The membrane is only allowing facilitated diffusion to take place with potassium therefore plasmolysis will happen to the dog cell which is option D.

What is Plasmolysis?

This is referred to as the process of shrinkage of the protoplasm of a plant cell as a result of loss of water.

Osmosis on the other hand involves the movement of a solvent molecule from a region of lower concentration to that of a higher concentration and the dog cell has a lower concentration of which means that there will be loss of water thereby leading to plasmolysis.

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The options are:

It would crenate.It would be Turgid.It would be lyse.It would go through plasmolysis.

place the following labels in order indicating the passage of sound waves through the ear and hearing apparatus starting outside the ear.

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The labels in order indicating the passage of sound waves through the ear and hearing apparatus starting outside the ear is given below:

1. Auricle

2. Auditory canal

3. Tympanic membrane

4. Ossicles

5. Oval window

6. Scala vestibuli

7. Scala tympani

8. Round window

What is  the ear processes a sound wave starting with the outer ear?

The part of the outer ear that is visible is called the auricle (pinna). It gathers sound waves and directs them into the external auditory meatus of the ear, where they are amplified. The eardrum, also known as the tympanic membrane, is a flexible, oval membrane located at the outer end of the ear canal.

Therefore, in the context of the above, the sound waves enter the outer ear and pass through the ear canal, a small tunnel that connects to the eardrum. When sound waves enter the ear, the eardrum vibrates, sending these vibrations to three small bones in the middle ear. The malleus, incus, and stapes are the names of these three bones.

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pathogens of the skin often enter via hair follicles and ducts of the sweat glands.
a) true
b) false

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(Option A.) It is true that pathogens of the skin often enter via hair follicles and ducts of the sweat glands. This is because these areas provide entry points for bacteria and other microorganisms to penetrate the skin and cause infections.

Pathogens of the skin often enter via hair follicles and ducts of the sweat glands

True.

Pathogens of the skin can enter the body through hair follicles and sweat glands, as they both provide entry points for bacteria and other microorganisms to penetrate the skin. The hair follicles act as a gateway for the pathogens, allowing them to reach the deeper layers of the skin, while the sweat ducts offer a moist environment that allows the microorganisms to thrive and spread.

In addition, sweat glands release oils and other substances that can provide a favorable environment for the pathogens to reproduce and cause infections. Therefore, it is essential to take proper precautions to protect the skin from these potential threats.

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In which organ does absorption take place? What structural features make this organ particularly well-suited for absorption of nutrients into the blood?

Answers

Answer:

the small intestine

Explanation:

Special cell helps absorbed nutrients cross the intestinal lining into your bloodstream

A ____________________________ is always a molecule, but a _______________________is not always a compound.

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Answer:

A compound is always a molecule, but a molecule is not always a compound

This is because a molecule is made up of multiple atoms, but they can be made of multiple of only one type of atom (ex [tex]O_{2}[/tex])

This differs from a compound which is made up of multiple different types of atoms (ex [tex]NaCl[/tex] or [tex]H_{2} O[/tex])

how many dna molecules would there be after four rounds of pcr if the initial reaction mixture contained two molecules?

Answers

Thirty-two DNA molecules are produced if two molecules are doubled four times.

A molecule is a group of two or more atoms held together by attractive forces known as chemical bonds. Depending on the context, the term may or may not include ions that meet this criterion.

Let's start with the molecule. The molecule is a general term used to describe all atoms connected by chemical bonds. Any combination of atoms is a molecule. A compound is a molecule composed of atoms of different elements. All compounds are molecules, but not all molecules are compounds.

There are four main classes of large biomolecules carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleic acids. Carbohydrates are made up of monomers called monosaccharides that contain carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen.

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m protein, hyaluronidase, collagenase, and often a capsule, can be virulence factors for certain pathogenic strains of?

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M protein, hyaluronidase, and collagenase can be virulence factors for certain pathogenic strains of streptococcus.

Proteins are massive, complex molecules that play many essential roles in the frame. They do most of the work in cells and are required for the shape, function, and regulation of the body's tissues and organs.

Each cell within the human body carries protein. The primary shape of a protein is a chain of amino acids.

Animal-primarily based foods (meat, poultry, fish, eggs, and dairy meals) have a tendency to be proper resources of complete protein, while plant-based totally meals (fruits, veggies, grains, nuts, and seeds) frequently lack one or extra important amino acid.

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in the absence of lactose, what would occur if there was a mutation in the operator of the lac operon that did not allow the lac repressor to bind?

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Three structural genes in the E. coli lac operon produce the lactose-using enzymes. A repressor protein attaches to the operator when lactose is lacking.

RNA polymerase cannot progress because the repressor protein is present on the operator.

If the "Operon" is shut off, a protein known as a repressor attaches to the operator in the absence of lactose. A protein known as a repressor prevents the expression of genes. Regulator genes, which are dispersed from the operators they influence, encode repressor proteins. Repressor protein binding to the operator physically prevents RNA polymerase from moving toward the structural genes, preventing transcription. Figure attached demonstrates how the lac operon "turns off" when the repressor protein binds to the operator (the "switch").

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describe an action that are required for this sport. it should include the sport description, i.e. throwing and the anatomical action of the muscles, i.e. extension. it should also describe the 1) anatomical name of the muscles, 2) bones, and 3) ligaments that create the action, as well as the 4) nerves and 5)arteries that supply that action. must have all 5 things for full points

Answers

Additionally, the anatomical names of the muscles should be included.

How is the anatomy of muscles named?

Some muscles, like the gluteal muscles in the buttocks, are named according to their size and position. Other muscle names, such tibialis anterior, can refer to the part of the body or bones the muscle is connected to.

What is a good way to describe a muscle's name?

Skeletal muscles are given names by anatomists based on a variety of criteria, each of which in some way describes the muscle. Some of characteristics include the muscle's form, size, fiber orientation, location, number of origins, and activity.

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In one family, the mother has type A blood and the father has type B blood, and they have two biological children. Their son has type AB blood, and their daughter has type O blood. Their daughter’s type O blood indicates that both parents are - for the ABO blood group alleles. The son can donate blood to - . The daughter can donate blood to - .

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Answer:

In one family, the mother has type A blood and the father has type B blood, and they have two biological children. Their son has type AB blood, and their daughter has type O blood. Their daughter's type O blood indicates that both parents are carriers of the ABO blood group alleles. The son can donate blood to anyone with type A, B, AB, or O blood, because type AB blood is a "universal recipient" that can receive any blood type. The daughter can donate blood to anyone with type O blood, because type O blood is a "universal donor" that can be given to any blood type. This is because type O blood lacks the A and B antigens that are present in other blood types, so it is compatible with all blood types.

Explanation:

If fertilization occurs which hormone triggers the thickening of the endometrium?

Answers

If fertilization occurs Estrogen triggers the thickening of the endometrium.

Fertilization is a complex multistep molecular technique where relatively methylated and certain haploid gametes, spermatozoon and oocyte, are coming collectively forming a male and a woman pronucleus, respectively, and culminating in the fusion of the two pronuclei giving an upward pull to the formation of the zygote.

Fertilization happens when a sperm fuses with the woman's act during intercourse and in addition, forms an egg that receives implanted within the uterus of the woman. The sperm travels through the fallopian tube and penetrates the zona pellucida layer of the ovum (girl egg) and fuses with it which paperwork a zygote (fertilized egg).

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What happens when you burn hydrocarbon fuels?

Answers

Hydrocarbon fuels can undergo complete combustion or incomplete combustion depending upon the amount of oxygen available.

Complete combustion happens when there is enough air present. Carbon and hydrogen atoms in hydrocarbon fuel combine with oxygen in an exothermic process, producing carbon dioxide and water while emitting energy.

Incomplete combustion occurs when the supply of air or oxygen is inadequate. Water is still generated, but so are carbon monoxide and carbon. There is less energy released than in full combustion.

For example, here is one potential equation for incomplete propane combustion: carbon + carbon monoxide + water = propane + oxygen

C3H8 + 3O2 C + 2CO + 4H2O = C3H8 + 3O2 C + 2CO + 4H2O

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how many ways can the letters of the word ancestor be arranged in a row if a and n must remain together (in order) as a unit?

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Since the letters in the given word are distinct for ancestors, there are as many arrangements of these letters in a row as there are permutations of a set with 8 answers is 40,320 elements.

There are 40,320 various ways to arrange the letters in the given word because each letter is unique. This is equivalent to every combination of the set of eight solutions. Therefore, since A and N must remain together, there are 10,080 possible ways the letters of the word ANCESTOR can be arranged in a row (in order) (c) There are 4,320 possible ways the letters of the word ANCESTOR can be placed in a row assuming the letters CES must remain together (in order) as a unit.

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energy used by the body to perform muscular contractions is called adenosine diphosphate, or adp.True/False

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Adenosine triphosphate or ATP is the energy currency created in the mitochondria during cellular respiration and is utilized to power muscle contraction where given statement is true.

The ATP is converted to ADP and Pi when muscles contract. This is the dissolution of the energetically dense links holding phosphate ions to ATP. The three bonds in ATP were broken down into -32kJ each. Therefore, energy is generated for muscle contraction as each link is broken. It is a heat-producing exergonic process.

ATP is therefore utilized for muscular contraction:

When one phosphate is eliminated from ATP during breakdown, ADP is the intermediate.Adenosine triphosphate (3 phosphate), adenosine diphosphate (2 phosphate), and then adenosine monophosphate make up the order (1 phosphate).

Each bond breaking releases 32 kJ/mol of energy.

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The open area of dna where replication or transcription can take place is called.

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The open area of DNA where replication or transcription can take place is called Replication bubble.

A replication bubble is an unraveled and open region of DNA that enables DNA replication. Bubbles are formed when the enzyme helicase distinguishes the two strands of DNA so that they can be recreated.

Through the process of DNA replication, a double-stranded DNA molecule is replicated to produce two identical DNA molecules. Replication is an important process because every time a cell divides, the two additional daughter cells should indeed contain the same genetic material, or DNA, as the parent cell.

DNA polymerase (DNAP) is an enzyme that is responsible for generating new nucleic acid molecules that are replicas of the original DNA. Polymers are massive compounds made up of smaller, repeating units that are molecularly linked together. Polymers are nucleic acids.

The method of replicating a segment of DNA into RNA is known as transcription. Messenger RNA is created when segments of DNA are transcribed into RNA molecules that can encode a protein. Other DNA segments are replicated into RNA molecules known as non-coding RNAs. Only 1-3% of overall RNA samples contain mRNA.

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amino acids can be described as glucogenic and ketogenic explain the differnces between the two and why some can be both

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The primary distinction between glucogenic and ketogenic amino acids is that whereas ketogenic amino acids can be turned into acetyl CoA and acetoacetyl CoA, glucogenic amino acids can only be transformed into pyruvate or other glucose precursors.

Upon deamination, gluconeogenic amino acids produce "amphibolic" intermediates that enter the TCA and may either be oxidized to produce carbon dioxide and water or take the opposite route to produce glucose or glycogen. Deamination of ketogenic amino acids results in ketoacidosis, which undergoes the "acetoacetate" stage of oxidation before being converted to water and carbon dioxide. Both glucose and ketone bodies are produced by amino acids that fall under the criteria of being both glucogenic and ketogenic.

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if the hypothalamus was not stimulated by estrogen, which pathways would be interrupted?

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If the hypothalamus is not stimulated by estrogen, the pathway that will be disrupted is thyroid-stimulating.

What is the hypothalamus?

The hypothalamus is a gland in the brain that controls the hormone system. It releases hormones to another part of the brain called the pituitary gland, which sends hormones to various organs of the body. Sometimes problems with the hypothalamus can occur. This can cause disease.

Some of the most important hormones produced by the hypothalamus are Corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH). CRH is involved in the body's response to physical and emotional stress. This signals the pituitary gland to produce a hormone called adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH).

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_____ is the process where a cell nucleus divides into two new nuclei, each of which contains the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.
A. cell division
B. mitosis
C. meiosis
D. cell cycle​

Answers

Mitosis is the process where a cell nucleus divides into two new nuclei, each of which contains the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.  The correct answer is B.

What is mitosis?

Mitosis is cell division that results in two daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell. The term mitosis in its narrow sense involves the division of the nucleus into 2 daughter nuclei and the term cytokinesis is used for the division of the cytoplasm that produces daughter cells, each of which contains a daughter nucleus.

In animals and humans, the process of mitotic division occurs in all body cells (somatic), except for sex cells (gametes). In animals, asters are formed and a groove is formed at the equator in the cell membrane during telophase so that the two daughter cells become separated.

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dr. dre is conducting an experiment where he exposed a culture of cells to irradiation in order to cause mutations in random genes. he manages to cause several missense mutations in a gene coding for histone proteins. as a result, several of the lysine residues that normally reside in the histone tail are replaced with glycine residues. what would you predict is the most likely consequence of this?

Answers

For the purpose of locating and isolating deletion mutants for certain plant genes, a fresh reverse genetics technique has been created. There are created deletion mutant libraries.

What procedure can result in an arbitrary mutation in a newly formed cell?

Mutations can be the result of viral infection, exposure to mutagens, or mistakes in DNA replication during cell division. Somatic mutations, which happen in body cells rather than in eggs or sperm, cannot be passed on to kids. Germline mutations, however, can.

When DNA replication occurs, what causes random mutation?

Mutations can be caused by mistakes in DNA replication or by mutagens, which interact with DNA and alter the architecture of certain nucleotides. All cells include DNA repair enzymes that work to reduce the amount of mutations that take place.

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What are the different categories of wildlife?

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Birds, mammals, reptiles, amphibians, fish, invertebrates, plants, and fungi are some of the numerous types of wildlife.

Any member of the class of warm-blooded vertebrates known as birds is differentiated by having forelimbs transformed into wings and a body that is more or less entirely covered in feathers. Warm-blooded creatures with hair and vertebrates, or backbones, such as humans, are referred to be mammals.

Snakes, lizards, turtles, and crocodilians make up the majority of the vertebrate group known as reptiles. Small animals called amphibians require water or a wet environment to exist. A lot of people think that fungi are plants. Fungi, on the other hand, are creatures that belong to their own kingdom of life and are neither plants nor animals.

All fish, shellfish, wild birds, intertidal creatures, amphibians, reptiles, and wild mammals that fall within the purview of the Fish and Wildlife Commission are included in the term "fish and wildlife." A cold-blooded animal without a backbone is an invertebrate.

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chapter 16 guidelines describe covid-19 infections in newborns. if a record documents a newborn tests positive for covid-19 which was contracted in utero, what icd10cm codes are assigned?

Answers

A few weeks earlier than usual, on July 8, CMS released the official 2021 ICD-10-CM covid 19 rules for neonates for coding and reporting.

The updated covid rules, which took effect on October 1 along with other revisions, include more instructions for reporting signs of the new coronavirus (COVID-19).

The rules include a new section for COVID-19 and add to the temporary coding instructions that were published in April by the ICD-10-CM Coordination and Maintenance Committee. The interim regulations will expire on September 30. The most recent reporting recommendations for ICD-10-CM code U07.1 (2019-nCoV acute respiratory illness) are as follows:

1. U07 should be used if a newborn who tests positive for COVID-19 does not have a proven method of transmission.

2. A new section in Certain Conditions Originating in the Perinatal Period should be assigned and any applicable codes for associated manifestations. P35.8 (other congenital viral diseases) should be classified after U07.

3.  If a newborn tests positive for COVID-19 and the healthcare provider notes that the infant caught the illness while in utero or during birth. The guidelines make it clear that the primary diagnostic for coding the birth episode in a newborn record is Z38 (liveborn infants according to place of birth and type of delivery).

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Describe Four types of organic molecules found in all living things

Answers

carbohydrates, lipids, proteins, and nucleotides

Check each of the true statements about the proteins involved in cutting and pasting DNA. More than one statement may be true.

Answers

the true statements about the proteins involved in cutting and pasting DNA also called DNA Replication are :

A particular restriction enzyme only cuts DNA at one very specific DNA sequence.

A restriction enzyme cuts DNA while DNA ligase pastes DNA.

DNA ligase pastes together segments of DNA with matching sticky ends.

A sequence of proteins assists in the unraveling and disconnection of the double-stranded DNA molecule in order to prepare it for replication. But since DNA has to be single-stranded prior to the replication could really begin, these proteins are required.

The biological method of creating two identical recreations of DNA from a single original DNA molecule is known as DNA replication.

DNA replication takes place in all living organisms and is the most important component of biological inheritance.

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Complete question :

Check each of the true statements about the proteins involved in cutting and pasting DNA. More than one statement may be true.

Two computer-generated images of protein enzymes.

Select all that apply

a) DNA ligase cuts DNA at specific locations called restriction sites.

b) A particular restriction enzyme cuts DNA at multiple sequences.

c) A particular restriction enzyme only cuts DNA at one very specific DNA sequence.

d) A restriction enzyme can cut DNA ligase at its restriction site.

e) A restriction enzyme cuts DNA while DNA ligase pastes DNA.

f) DNA ligase pastes together segments of DNA with matching sticky ends.

what would be the genotype of a high school boy who is homozygous dominan

Answers

Answer:

I must be homozygous dominant genotype.for instance, height..if it is homozygous dominant (HH)it will express a homozygous genotype only..

hope it helps

Answer:

homozygous recessive

Explanation:

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