For a percutaneous coronary intervention correct answers are as follows: Assess invasive procedure sites for bleeding. Check hemoglobin and platelet count. Place the client on continuous cardiac monitoring. Report black tarry stools to the health care provider.
During percutaneous coronary intervention procedures, glycoprotein (GP) IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitors (such as abciximab, eptifibatide, and tirofiban) are used as platelet inhibitors to prevent the blockage of treated coronary arteries and prevent acute ischemic sequelae. Inhibitors of the GP IIb/IIIa receptor can result in life-threatening bleeding. Following a percutaneous coronary intervention, the nurse should attentively watch the patient for any bleeding at the femoral puncture site (Option 1). The nurse ought to examine the patient's initial full blood count (eg, hemoglobin, platelet count). Some patients may experience severe thrombocytopenia within a few hours, raising the risk of bleeding even more (Option 2). When using GP IIb/IIIa receptor inhibitors, patients should be closely monitored for any signs of internal bleeding, including hypotension, tachycardia, changes in heart rhythm, blood in the urine, back and stomach pain, changes in mental status, and black tarry stools (Options 4 and 5).
The complete question is:
The nurse cares for a client following a percutaneous coronary intervention via the right groin. The client received an IV infusion of abciximab during the procedure. Which actions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.
1. Assess invasive procedure sites for bleeding
2. Check hemoglobin and platelet count
3. Initiate a second large-bore IV line
4. Place the client on continuous cardiac monitoring
5. Report black tarry stools to the health care provider.
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during clinical teaching, the nurse educator is asked to explain the difference between standard and hydrolyzed formulas. how would the nurse explain the difference?
the nurse would explain the difference as, Standard formulas have whole proteins, whereas completely hydrolyzed formulas contain only free amino acids as their source of protein.
Protein hydrolysate is frequently used instead of regular cow's milk formulae (with intact proteins) when human milk is unavailable to feed preterm infants since it is thought that it is more tolerable and less likely to cause difficulties. Protein hydrolysate formulae are more expensive than normal formulas, and there is worry that their use in practice may not be well-supported by reliable research. The majority of patients were clinically healthy preterm infants with gestational ages under 34 weeks and birth weights under 1750 g. Extreme preterm birth, extremely low birth weight, and growth restriction affected fewer individuals. In most trials, there were no impacts on feed intolerance as measured by mean prefeed gastric residual volume or other metrics.
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a pregnant client is receiving magnesium sulfate for the management of preeclampsia. the nurse determines that the client is experiencing toxicity from the medication if which findings are noted on assessment? select all that apply
Pregnant clients are given magnesium sulfate to treat preeclampsia. A nurse medication determines that a client is drug toxic if she takes 10 breaths per minute and urinates 20 ml per hour.
magnesium sulfate poisoning can occur with magnesium sulfate therapy. Signs of magnesium sulfate toxicity are associated with the drug's preeclampsia depressant effects on the central nervous system and include respiratory depression, loss of deep tendon reflexes, and rapid decreases in preeclampsia fetal and maternal heart rate and blood pressure.12 per minute A respiratory rate of less than 100 is a sign of toxicity.
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a palatal condition of an elderly patient that is primarily caused by chronic irritation from the suction chamber of a denture is clinically observed as: group of answer choices a. fibroma b. papilloma c. papillary hyperplasia d. median palatal cyst
Palatal condition of elderly patients which is mainly caused by chronic irritation of the denture suction space clinically observed is a. Fibroma.
What are Palatal Petechiae?Palatal petechia is a term that describes bleeding that occurs in the oral mucosa. This condition generally coexists with mononucleosis, measles, scarlet fever, leukemia, thrombocytopenia, and disseminated intravascular coagulation.
Red spots on the roof of the mouth are generally caused by irritation from food, dentures, or mouth/throat infections. Even so, this condition is generally not dangerous and will go away on its own.
Other conditions that can cause physical injury or bruise to the mouth are:
Dentures that don't fit anymore. Broken tooth edge. Uneven dental fillings or broken crowns. Sensitivity or allergic reaction to certain ingredients in some toothpaste or mouthwashes.Learn more about mouth pain here :
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a patient is admitted with phenobarbital overdose. which prescribed action would be of greatest priority?
The patient is admitted with an overdose of phenobarbital. Assessing vital signs, prescribed action would be of the highest priority.
Phenobarbital is a medicine used to treat epilepsy (fits), anxiety and insomnia. It belongs to a class of drugs called barbiturates. A phenobarbital overdose occurs when a person intentionally or accidentally takes too much of this drug. Barbiturates are addictive, producing physical dependence and a life-threatening withdrawal syndrome. Patients with phenobarbital overdose who are handle only with supportive care may remain in a coma for several days due to the long elimination half-life of phenobarbital. We treated two patients with phenobarbital overdoses with nasogastric administration of multiple doses of activated charcoal. This safe therapy significantly shortened both the elimination half-life of phenobarbital and the duration of coma in these patients.
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true or false? because the adequate intake for fiber is based on calorie intake, and energy needs decline with age, the ai for fiber decreases after age 50 years.
Since energy needs diminish with age and the adequate intake for fiber is based on calorie intake, the ai for fiber drops after age 50.
Age-related reductions in calorie requirements and, consequently, energy needs lead to a decrease in adequate consumption of fiber.
A nutrient derived from plants, dietary fiber can be found in a wide range of meals. The term "fiber" refers to a broad category of indigestible carbohydrates that have a variety of positive health effects. Our understanding of fiber and its role in the promotion of health and the reduction of disease risk has significantly advanced in recent years.
The recommended intake (AI) for persons over 50 is 30 grams of dietary fiber for men and 21 grams for women each day. These AIs are scaled back to correspond with the typical decline in food consumption that comes with aging.
As a result, the right response is True.
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the nurse is assessing the emotional status of a client with parkinson's disease. which client finding is most helpful in planning goals to meet the client's emotional needs? a- stares straight ahead without blinking b- face does not convey any emotion c- cries frequently during the interview d- uses a monotone when speaking
The client finding that is most helpful in planning goals to meet the client's emotional needs is c)Cries frequently during the interview
What is Parkinson’s disease?
Frequent, unrestrained tears or laughter are the hallmarks of pseudobulbar affect (PBA). When a nervous system condition, such Parkinson's disease (PD), affects the parts of the brain in charge of emotion expression, this occurs.
The characteristics of pseudobulbar affect are frequent, uncontrollable crying or laughing (PBA). This happens when a nervous system disorder, such as Parkinson's disease (PD), affects the areas of the brain responsible for expressing emotions. This interference with brain signaling is what causes the involuntary episodes.
Hence The client finding that is most helpful in planning goals to meet the client's emotional needs is c)Cries frequently during the interview
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the condition characterized by abnormally high concentrations of calcium circulating in the blood
Answer: Hypercalcemia (High Level of Calcium in the Blood).
a nurse suspects that a client admitted to the emergency department is in diabetic ketoacidosis. what data would lead the nurse to this conclusion?
According to question, the nurse conclude that due to polyuria, the client with diabetic ketoacidosis will exhibit indicators of dehydration, including dry mucous membranes.
Diabetic ketoacidosis is a risky and sometimes fatal side effect of diabetes (DKA). The majority of persons with type 1 diabetes experience DKA. DKA can occur in people who have type 2 diabetes as well. When your body doesn't produce enough insulin, blood sugar can't enter your cells to be used as energy, which leads to DKA.
A client is more likely to experience skin breakdown if they are immobile or weak, especially if these factors are present in addition to other risk factors including poor nutrition, disorientation, incontinence, or impaired sensory awareness.
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the nurse manager is concerned about the large number of adolescent mothers being seen in the obstetrics clinic. how can the nurse manager use the transformational leadership style to address the concern?
The high percentage of adolescent mothers visiting the obstetrics clinic worries the nurse manager. The nurse can recruit volunteers to assist in creating a community outreach project that instructs teenagers about contraceptive options.
Teenage pregnancy occurs when a lady under 20 gets pregnant. Teenagers between the ages of 15 and 19 are typically the target audience. But females as young as 10 can participate. It is sometimes referred to as adolescent pregnancy or teen pregnancy. One of the most common signs of pregnancy is missing one or more menstrual cycles. Teenage girls, whose periods aren't yet regular, may find this challenging. Girls whose cycles are irregular due to diets, exercise, low body fat from sports, or anorexia may find it challenging.
The first few months of pregnancy are very important for prenatal care. Prenatal care checks for medical issues in both the mother and the unborn child keeps track of the child's development and responds immediately to any issues that may arise. Folic acid-fortified prenatal vitamins should be given prior to conception to help prevent some birth problems, such as neural tube defects.
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an inpatient client with copd has been diagnosed with allergic rhinitis and is given an antihistamine. what is a priority for the nurse when providing care to this client?
An antihistamine Is prescribed to a COPD inpatient client who has been diagnosed with allergic rhinitis. When caring for this client, the nurse’s top responsibility is to keep resuscitation tools nearby.
The most prevalent cause of chronic respiratory ailment a chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is lung damage brought on by smoking.
COPD is an obstructive airway disease that worsens over time and is not entirely curable. It is brought on by parenchymal and bronchial diseases, such as emphysema and chronic bronchitis.
The Illness is quite diverse, with persistent airflow restriction coming from a confluence of lung parenchyma damage and small airway disease (bronchitis) (emphysema). Patients vary in how much the process predominates in their lives.
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when a nurse assesses prior self-harm behavior, this can provide information about the motivation behind the client's actions and allows the nurse to do what?
when a nurse assesses prior self-harm behavior, this can provide information about the motivation behind the client's actions and allows the nurse to Communicate concern and empathy to the client.
People may engage in self-harming behaviors for a variety of reasons, including: coping with challenging or painful feelings such as humiliation, remorse, loneliness, or fear. To help the person deal with concerns such as life stress or mental health problems. As a kind of self-punishment.
The reasons for self-harm differ. Some people use it as a coping method to provide short relief from intense sensations such as worry, despair, stress, emotional numbness, or a sense of failure. Self-harm is frequently related with a history of trauma, including physical and emotional abuse.
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the nurse notes a client has a new prescription for a laxative. the nurse would question this order if which disorder is noted in the client's medical record? select all that apply.
The nurse observed the client's medical file lists acute appendicitis, intestinal blockage, and fecal impaction issues.
When administered incorrectly, stimulant laxatives might have negative consequences on expecting mothers. In particular, castor oil shouldn't be utilized since it could make the womb shrink. Adult properly ventilated patients might benefit from lactulose laxative prophylaxis to avoid constipation. The amount of days spent on a ventilator may be influenced by the timing of the first bowel movement. When compared to an early bowel movement during the first five days, late bowel movements are related with fewer ventilator days. The nurse must identify any probable causes of the patient's constipation but then individually tailor the patient's therapy and education. An abdominal examination that takes into account pain, distention, and diminished bowel sounds should be recorded by the nurse.
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the nurse knows that determining whether a person is oriented to his or her surroundings will test the functioning of which area of the brain?
The nurse knows that determining whether a person is oriented to his or her surroundings will test the functioning of cerebrum area of the brain
The outer layer of your cerebrum, or cerebral cortex, is located on top of it. Your brain's biggest region is called your cerebrum. Your brain is split into two parts by your cerebrum, which is known as the hemispheres. A group of nerve fibers known as the corpus callosum holds the hemispheres together.
The cerebrum, which makes up the majority of the brain, controls temperature as well as movement initiation and coordination. Other regions of the cerebrum are responsible for communication, decision-making, logic, problem-solving, emotions, and learning.
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the nurse is preparing to administer alprazolam to a patient with generalized anxiety disorder. which assessment should the nurse conduct prior to administering the medication?
the nurse is preparing to administer alprazolam to a patient with generalized anxiety disorder will assess the client’s anxiety level and evaluate effectiveness of the medication.
The most widely prescribed psychotropic drug in the US is alprazolam, also referred to by other trade names. It's common practice to prescribe alprazolam to treat panic and anxiety disorders. Due to its effects on disinhibition, euphoria, and anxiolytics, alprazolam has also been abused recreationally. Anxiety disorders and panic disorders with or without agoraphobia are among the FDA-listed indications. This activity covers the key information that members of an interprofessional team managing the care of patients with mental health disorders need to know about the indications, mechanism of action, administration, dosing, contraindications, warnings, precautions, adverse drug reactions, and toxicity of alprazolam in the clinical setting.
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a client is having issues with high blood pressure. the nurse knows that which area of the central nervous system may be involved:
The nurse knows that which area of the central nervous system may be involved Hypothalamus.
The brain and spinal cord comprise the central nervous system: the brain controls how we think, learn, move, and feel. The spinal cord relays messages from the brain to the nerves that run throughout the body.
The spinal cord, medulla, pons, cerebellum, midbrain, diencephalon, and cerebral hemispheres are the seven basic parts of the central nervous system (defined as the brain and spinal cord).
The hypothalamus is a brain region that contains a number of small nuclei that perform a variety of functions. One of its most important functions is to connect the nervous and endocrine systems via the pituitary gland. The limbic system includes the hypothalamus, which is located beneath the thalamus. It is the ventral part of the diencephalon, according to neuroanatomy terminology. The hypothalamus is found in all vertebrate brains. It is the size of an almond in humans.
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an unconscious client is admitted to the icu with a closed head injury suffered in a fall. despite aggressive efforts, the client expired within 24 hours. the nurse must complete postmortem care while awaiting the coroner. the nurse knows what action is not appropriate in this situation?
The actions which are not appropriate in this situation
1. Remove indwelling catheter
3. Remove hospital ID band
5. Wash body head to toe
The body undergoes a number of physical changes after death, including purple skin discoloration (livor mortis), loss of skin elasticity, and change in body temperature (algor mortis). To avoid tissue damage or disfigurement, postmortem care should be provided as soon as possible. Before beginning any other activities, the head of the bed should be raised and a clean pillow placed under the head immediately following death to prevent livor mortis of the face.
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(Complete question)
An unconscious client is admitted to the ICU with a closed head injury suffered in a fall. Despite aggressive efforts, the client expired within 24 hours. The nurse must complete postmortem care while awaiting the coroner. The nurse knows what action is notappropriate in this situation?
Select all that apply
1. Remove indwelling catheter
2. Disconnect the ET tube from ventilator
3. Remove hospital ID band
4. Cap all intravenous lines
5. Wash body head to toe
you suspect that a friend is experiencing a severe allergic reaction to a bee sting based on which sign?
Answer: Swelling of the lips, tongue or throat
Dizziness and/or fainting
Shortness of breath, trouble breathing or wheezing
Explanation: also check for rashes on the face and change of skin tone.
individuals with hiv/aids are viewed and treated the same as uninfected individuals in society. t or f
People who have HIV/AIDS are treated and seen in society in the same way as those who are not infected. This statement is false.
People are often afraid of contracting HIV/AIDS even though they are aware of how the disease is spread, therefore those who are sick are frequently shunned and isolated from society. HIV/AIDS patients face taboos since they are thought to have an incurable illness that could spread if they come into touch with an infected person.
Even though there are numerous awareness efforts being undertaken (by government, private agencies/NGOs) to raise awareness that this disease is not contagious, individuals still mistakenly believe it to be one. As a result, someone who has HIV/AIDS is not at all considered someone who is healthy in society.
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the nurse is employed in a urologist's office. which classification of medication is anticipated for clients having difficulty with urinary incontinence? anticonvulsant cholinergic diuretics anticholinergic
The correct classification of anticipatory drugs for clients who have difficulty with urinary incontinence is anticholinergic.
What is urinary incontinence?Urinary incontinence is the involuntary loss of urine in sufficient quantity and frequency that can cause health and social problems.
Urinary incontinence can occur due to pressure on the bladder, for example by coughing, laughing, lifting weights, or exercising. This happens because the muscles of the urinary tract are too weak to hold urine so the sufferer is unable to hold back urination. Urinary incontinence can have many causes, from lifestyle to certain medical conditions. Urinary incontinence can also occur in the short term or in the long term.
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a client on 2 gm/hr of magnesium sulfate has decreased deep tendon reflexes. identify the priority nursing assessment to ensure client safety. a. assess uterine contractions continuously. b. assess fetal heart rate continuously. c. assess urinary output. d. assess respiratory rate. book
Contractions under observation do not suggest magnesium poisoning. Magnesium sulfate will reduce fetal variability and won't give a reliable indication of the toxicity of magnesium.
Decreased deep tendon reflexes are not correlated with urinary output. Since deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) and respiratory effort are both involuntary functions, a decrease in DTRs may be a sign that magnesium sulfate toxicity or reduced respiratory effort is possible.
The patient should be examined for any poisoning symptoms, such as pulmonary edema, muscle paralysis, visual abnormalities, somnolence, flushing, or loss of patellar reflexes. The physician must be informed if these symptoms are seen. A staff person needs to stay by the patient's bedside when the bolus is administered to oversee ongoing monitoring. After the first hour, assessments should be done every 15 minutes, then every 30 minutes, and finally hourly.
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an immune deficiency causes a severe reduction in the amount of mhc-ii expressed on the surface of professional antigen-presenting cells. predict which immune processes will be significantly impacted by this deficiency.
Cell-mediated and humoral immunity are the immune processes that will be significantly impacted by mhc-ii deficiency.
Cell-mediated immunity is outlined as a useful host response characterised by a swollen population of specific T-cells, which, within the presence of antigens, turn out cytokines domestically. The most varieties of lymphocytes concerned in cell-mediated immunity embrace naïve T cells, helper T cells, killer T cells, and macrophages
Humoral immunity is that the facet of immunity that's mediate by macromolecules - as well as secreted antibodies, complement proteins, and sure antimicrobial peptides - situated in extracellular fluids. Body substance immunity is known as thus as a result of it involves substances found within the humors, or body fluids.
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what are some examples of gluten-free grains a client could consume who have celiac disease, or have heightened gluten sensitivity? select all that apply.
The common term for the proteins present in wheat, rye, barley, and hybrid grains is gluten. The greatest harmful health effects of gluten, particularly for those who have celiac disease, are caused by glutenins and gliadins. It can seriously affect someone with celiac disease, that can result in long-term organ damage.
Even a small amount of gluten, such as a few breadcrumbs, can have a significant detrimental impact on someone with celiac disease. Digestion-related symptoms include bloating, gas or diarrhoea. You may encounter nutritional deficits if you have celiac disease, which can result in anaemia, weight loss, or even failure to thrive.
Some of the example of gluten free grains are: oats, quinoa, brown rice, corn, millet, amaranth, teff, and buckwheat.
Therefore, this gluten is very much harmful to the health of human beings and consuming gluten free food can help reduce such health hazards.
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teenagers tend to under consume and over consume ? group of answer choices sodium, fiber calcium, sodium sugar, cholesterol sugar, fat
Teenagers over-consume sodium, sugar, cholesterol sugar, etc. and they under consume fiber and calcium.
Cholesterol is the waxy lipid synthesized by the liver. It is an essential component for the cell membranes. However excess of cholesterol can block the blood vessels of the heart that can cause serious heart diseases like stroke, attack, etc.
Calcium is the element in the periodic table with atomic number 20. It is very essential for the good health of bones and teeth in humans. The other roles it play is in blood clotting, signaling, muscle contraction, etc. There are various foods that provide calcium to the body like milk, cheese, kale, etc.
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which complication associated with type 1 diabetes should the nurse include in the teaching plan for parents of a newly diagnosed child
Ketoacidosis is associated with type 1 diabetes should the nurse include in the teaching plan for parents of a newly diagnosed child.
Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) is a serious diabetes complication that can be fatal. DKA is most common in type 1 diabetes patients. DKA can occur in people with type 2 diabetes. DKA occurs when your body does not produce enough insulin to allow blood sugar into your cells for energy use.
Without enough insulin, the body starts breaking down fat for fuel. This results in a buildup of acids in the bloodstream known as ketones. If left untreated, the accumulation can lead to diabetic ketoacidosis.
DKA can occur in people with type 2 diabetes, but it is less common and less severe. It is usually caused by uncontrolled blood sugar for an extended period of time, missed medication doses, or a severe illness or infection.
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julie has been diagnosed with somatic symptom disorder. this means she is suffering from a condition in which her physical symptoms
Answer: Her physical symptoms are at such a severe level that they are resulting in major distress.
Explanation:
the nurse caring for a client who is prescribed biologic response modifiers to boost the immune response. which medication does the nurse expect to find on the medication administration record (mar)?
The nurse anticipate finding Aldesleukin (Proleukin) on the medicine administration record(MAR).
Aldesleukin can result in a serious and potentially fatal response known as capillary leak syndrome, which causes the body to retain extra fluid, low blood pressure, as well as low amounts of a protein called albumin in the blood. This illness can harm your heart, lung, kidneys, and digestive system. Capillary leak syndrome may develop right away after receiving aldesleukin. Tell your doctor and nurse right away if you suffer any of the symptoms listed: Weight gain, chest discomfort, shortness of breath, fainting, woozy or lightheadedness, disorientation, swelling of the hand, feet, ankle, or lower legs, swelling of the feet, ankles, or lower legs, or swelling of the right hand, feet, or ankles. The neurological system may be affected by aldesleukin, which might result in coma. Tell your doctor right away if you suffer any of the following symptoms: extreme slumber
(The nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed biologic response modifiers to boost the immune response for renal cell carcinoma. Which medication does the nurse expect to find on the medication administration record (MAR)?
1. Aldesleukin (Proleukin)
2. Anakinra (Kineret)
3. Azathioprine (Azasan)
4. Basiliximab (Simulect))
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a client at 36 weeks gestation has a blood pressure of 140/90. which additional sign of preeclampsia would the nurse assess for
High blood pressure (hypertension) and protein in the urine are early signs of pre-eclampsia (proteinuria).
Preeclampsia is a serious medical condition that can develop around the middle of a pregnancy. High blood pressure, protein in the urine, swelling, headaches, and blurred vision are all symptoms of preeclampsia. A healthcare provider is required to treat this condition. These signs are unlikely to be noticed by you, but they should be picked up during your routine antenatal appointments.
Symptoms usually appear after 34 weeks. Symptoms appear after birth in a few cases, usually within 48 hours of delivery.
Preeclampsia/eclampsia is defined as a blood pressure (BP) of 140/90 mm Hg or higher after 20 weeks of gestation in a woman with previously normal BP and proteinuria.
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which statementwhich statements indicate a correct understanding of the tenets of the code of ethics for nurses? select all that apply. by the nurse is an example of deception?
The nurse maintains standards of personal conduct.
The nurse is active in developing a core of research-based principles.
The nurse holds personal information as confidential.
A guide for "carrying out nursing responsibilities in a way compatible with quality in nursing care and the ethical commitments of the profession," the nursing code of ethics is described by the American Nurses Association (ANA) as such. Ethics are generally referred to be the moral precepts that guide a person's behavior. All healthcare professionals must uphold ethical standards, but nurses in particular must do so given their position as caregivers.
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meningococcal meningitis is definitively diagnosed from cultures isolated from nasopharyngeal swabs, blood, or cerebrospinal on thayer–martin medium, a selective medium for the growth neisseria. however, preliminary diagnosis is often based on clinical symptoms, and treatment with antibiotics is started before culture tests confirm infection with n. meningitidis. why?
The treatment with antibiotics is started before culture tests confirm infection with n. meningitidis because it's life-threatening symptoms can develop very rapidly.
Meningococcal meningitis refers to any malady caused by microorganism known as Neisseria meningitidis. These diseases are typically severe, is deadly, and embody infections of the liner of the brain and neural structure (meningitis) and blood.
Bacteria known as N. meningitidis cause meningococcal diseases. concerning one in ten individuals have these microorganism within the back of their nose and throat while not being sick. this can be known as being 'a carrier. ' generally the microorganism invade the body and cause sure diseases, that are referred to as meningococcal diseases.
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which therapeutic system is based on administration of extremely diluted doses of natural agents that would produce symptoms of illness in large doses but are believed to produce a cure when given in minute doses?
The homeopathic system is based on the administration of extremely diluted doses of natural agents that produce symptoms in large doses but are believed to produce a cure when given in minute doses.
Homeopathy is a type of complementary medicine that uses incredibly diluted medications to heal patients. It was initially put forth by German physician Samuel Hahnemann in 1976. Homeopaths prepare homoeopathic remedies by shaking them with a hard blow after each dilution, a process known as succession. They do this in the hopes that the treatment would be more effective. This is what homoeopaths refer to as potentization. Often, dilution goes on until no original ingredients are left. The next step is to consult repertories, which are homoeopathic reference books, and choose a remedy based on the full spectrum of symptoms.
The complete question is:
Which therapeutic system is based on the administration of extremely diluted doses of natural agents that produce symptoms in large doses but are believed to produce a cure when given in minute doses?
A) herbal
B) homeopathic
C) naturopathic
D) chiropractic
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