Ocean acidification causes a decrease in the pH concentration of the oceans, mostly arises as a result of the entry of carbon dioxide from the atmosphere.
A fisherman noticing a shellfish's shell being very small and lack the thick hard shell may be due to Ocean acidification (option A).
Ocean acidification is mainly caused by fossil fuels and leads to a decrease in the water's pH.
It also causes a reduction in the amount of carbonate, a building block of shells and skeletons in seawater.
This makes it very difficult for marine organisms, such as shell fish and corals, to form their shells and skeletons, and those with existing shells may begin to dissolve.
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Full Question :
A fisherman collecting shellfish notices that many are very small and lack the thick hard shell he is accustomed to seeing in the species. Which statement best explains what may be impacting the shellfish population?
a- Ocean acidification
b- Ocean warming
c- Coral bleaching
d- Climate change
In a genome-wide expression study using a dna microarray assay, what is each spot used to detect?
In a genome-wide expression study using a DNA microarray assay, each spot is used to detect D) expression of a specific gene by a cell.
A DNA microarray assay can be described as an assay technique in which each of gene of an organism can be studied.
Each gene that is present inside an organism is distributed or captured in a well-known spot using the DNA microarray technique. This is because there is a complementary sequence present in each well for each gene.
We can study the expression of a specific kind of gene as the entire genomic sequence is separated into spots using the DNA microarray assay.
Although a part of your question is missing, you might be referring to this question:
In a genome-wide expression study using a DNA microarray assay, what is each spot used to detect?
A) fate of proteins produced by a cell.
B) location of a protein produced by a cell.
C) location of a gene within a cell.
D) expression of a specific gene by a cell.
E) type of chemical modification of proteins produced by a cell.
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What are the 4 characteristics of hypothesis?
The number one capabilities of a hypothesis speculation are falsifiability and testability, which might be contemplated in an assertion summarizing the concept and withinside the capacity to be supported or refuted thru statement and experimentation.
Following are the traits of the speculation: The speculation must be clean and unique to don't forget it to be reliable. If the speculation is a relational speculation, then it must be pointing out the connection among variables. The speculation need to be precise and must have scope for accomplishing extra tests.
A exact Hypothesis need to own the subsequent traits – 1.It is in no way formulated withinside the shape of a question. 2.It must be empirically testable, whether or not it's far proper or wrong. 3.It must be precise and unique. 4.It must specify variables among which the connection is to be established.
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17 of 7017 of 70 Items
01:41:02
Which event is most likely to decrease the amount of sunlight that reaches Earth's surface?
Answer:
A solar eclipse.
Explanation:
which bone cells are responsible for laying down new bone for growth and repair?
Osteoblasts and osteoclasts, two cell types found in bones, control bone development. Osteoblasts build new bone tissue by putting down collagen and other crucial chemical compounds, whereas osteoclasts remove old bone tissue.
What is osteoblast?
Osteocytes are cells that are "entrapped" by osteoblasts and are found inside the bone itself. Through the coordinated operations of bone cells, bone resorption by osteoclasts, and bone formation, bone tissue is continuously rebuilt. Bones grow, are shaped, and are maintained by osteoblast, osteoclast, osteocyte, and osteoprogenitor bone cells. The thickness of the cortical layer, bone growth, and structural integrity are all significantly influenced by bone-forming cells, including osteoblasts and osteoclasts. Osteoblasts, which create new bone, are derived from bone marrow precursor cells.
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how does a dually innervated autonomic effector differ from a singly innervated autonomic effector? group of answer choices a dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. a singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the sympathetic division. a dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. a singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the parasympathetic division. a dually innervated effector utilizes both acetylcholine and norepinephrine as neurotransmitters. a singly innervated autonomic effector utilizes only acetylcholine. a dually innervated effector utilizes both acetylcholine and norepinephrine as neurotransmitters. a singly innervated autonomic effector uses only norepinephrine.
A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. The option (B) is correct.
What are sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways?Sympathetic pathways leave the central nervous system via preganglionic neurons located in the intermediolateral columns of the spinal cord from thoracic to mid-lumbar levels.
The parasympathetic nervous system consists of many pathways that connect its craniosacral components with the peripheral tissues. Each parasympathetic pathway consists of two neurons, the presynaptic (preganglionic) and postsynaptic (postganglionic) neurons.
Therefore, the parasympathetic pathway is responsible for relaxing the body, while the sympathetic pathway is responsible for preparing for an emergency.
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What is similar DNA sequence?
The similar DNA sequence is the similarity analysis of DNA sequences compares unknown DNA sequences with known ones to infer the functions of unknown ones.
It can also provide evolutionary information about the same gene sequence in different species, which is a fundamental method to understand the biological information in DNA sequences. The terms "homologous" (shared by ancestry) or "comparable" refer to similar anatomy present in distinct species (shared due to similar selective pressures).
Evidence for the common ancestry of life comes from molecular commonalities. The relationship between several species can be revealed by comparing their DNA sequences. Common ancestry can be proven by similar DNA sequences in genes. The accumulation of differences has caused all living things to share a common ancestor.
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For bacteriophages and animal viruses ________ is the step in the viral life cycle that determines host cell or tissue specificity.
A) penetration
B) assembly
C) attachment/absoption
D) synthesi
For bacteriophages and animal viruses, C) attachment/absorption is the step in the viral life cycle that determines the host cell or tissue specificity.
What is the life cycle of bacteriophages?Bacteriophages have lytic/lysogenic cycle. Lytic cycle causes the death of the host whereas lysogenic cycle causes integration of phage into the host genome. Bacteriophages inject DNA in host cell whereas animal viruses enter by endocytosis or membrane fusion.
Lytic cycle steps of bacteriophages are as following:
1. Phage attachment: To enter a host bacterial cell, phage must first attach itself to the bacterium, 2. bacterial cell entry, 3. phage replication and 4. birth of new phage.
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if you want to find the best time of year to visit Thailand, which method of forecasting would be the best to use? Explain your answer.
If you want to find the best time of year to visit Thailand straight line method of forecasting would be the best one to use.
What is forecasting?Forecasting is a technique by it is that uses historically figured data as inputs to the make informed estimated that is predictive in the determining the direction of the future trends. Businesses utilizes of the forecasting to determine the how to allocate theirs budgets or plan for the anticipates expenses foran upcoming period of time.
The straight-line method is the one of the simplest and the it is easy-to-follow by the of forecasting methods. As a financial analysing the touses a historically figured by thetrends to the prediction of future revenue of the growth.
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Craniofacial size has reduced over the course of human evolution, including during the transition from foraging to farming. Place the sequence of events following the dietary transition in chronological order to show how craniofacial growth became reduced. size has reduced over the course of human evolution, including during the transition from foraging to farming. Place the sequence of events following the dietary transition in chronological order to show how craniofacial growth became reduced.
Consuming food that was less difficult to chew, putting less stress on the jaw bones and muscles involved in chewing.
Why do people get craniofacial disorders?The infant's skull or face bones fuse together prematurely or in an incorrect fashion, resulting in craniofacial abnormalities such craniosynostosis. An newborn may experience neurological issues if the bones fuse together too early, which can cause harm to the developing brain since it cannot properly expand.
What exactly is cranial-facial?The bones of the skull and face are referred to as craniofacial in medicine. Birth defects of the face or head are referred to as cranial abnormalities. Some birth abnormalities are among the most prevalent, including cleft lip and palate. Some are quite uncommon.
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Multigene families include two or more nearly identical genes or genes sharing nearly identical
sequences. A classical example is the set of genes for globin molecules, including genes on human
chromosomes 11 and 16.
How might identical and obviously duplicated gene sequences have gotten from one
chromosome to another?
By chromosomal translocation, the duplicated gene sequences might have gotten from one chromosome to another.
When a chromosome splits and is partially or completely reattached to a separate chromosome, this is referred to as a chromosome translocation.
Two alpha (α) and two beta (β) polypeptide chains make up adult hemoglobin. On chromosome 16, there are two copies of the hemoglobin alpha gene (HBA1 and HBA2), each of which codes for an α-chain. On chromosome 11, the hemoglobin beta gene (HBB) encodes the β-chain. The mutation in chromosome 16 and chromosome 11 causes α- and β-globin gene clusters by translocation to cause thalassemia.
Therefore, the answer is chromosomal translocation.
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which concentration technique is most commonly used for cerebrospinal fluid evaluation using a glass cylinder attached to a microscope slide with paraffin wax
There are various methods for obtaining a CSF sample. The most used technique is a lumbar puncture (spinal tapping). To take the exam, you will lie on your side with your chin tucked under and your legs were drawn up toward your chest.
Typically, tubes 1 through 3 or 4 are pre-numbered for CSF aspiration, with tube 1 being the first filled. If at all feasible, save tube 1 for experimental procedures. Testing for chemistry and immunology can be done in tube 2. Microbiology tests can be performed using Tube 3. For calculating the total protein in cerebrospinal fluid, three turbidometric techniques including one utilizing UV spectrophotometry have been investigated. The ultraviolet approach can't be used regularly because it requires pre-dialysis.
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Describe the relationship between zebra mussel and unionid mussel population density in the hudson river.
Zebra mussels, a non-native species, competed with unionid mussels for food. Zebra mussels were able to outnumber unionid mussels, allowing the zebra mussel population to increase dramatically within six years. The unionid mussel population has declined due to lack of food.
What is Zebra Mussel?The Zebra Mussel is considered one of the most harmful invasive alien species on the planet. It is a small bivalve mollusk from fresh or brackish water, the size of a 5 cent coin, originating in the Black and Caspian Seas and present in Spain since 2001. It is currently found in 3 Spanish river basins: Ebro, Júcar and Guadalquivir.
The Zebra Mussel can create colonies of up to 3 million individuals per square meter and they can live between 2 to 3 years. They reach sexual maturity at one year old and females produce between 4,000 and 1,000,000 fertilized eggs per year. When it detects adverse conditions, it can remain closed and alive for up to two weeks.
This invasive species has no natural predators in the new freshwater habitats it colonizes, thus enhancing its proliferation.
In addition to being a serious environmental threat, the Zebra Mussel is also an economic threat and can cause great damage to the economy.
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the denaturation of which enzyme would most directly interrupt the process of base pairing of nucleotides during dna replication?
The denaturation of DNA Polymerase enzyme would most directly interrupt the process of base pairing of nucleotides during DNA replication.
A particular kind of enzyme called DNA polymerase (DNAP) is in charge of creating fresh nucleic acid molecules that are copies of the original DNA. Polymers are huge compounds consisting of smaller, repeating units that are chemically linked to one another. Nucleic acids are polymers.
All living things contain a particular type of enzymes called DNA polymerase. DNA replication and DNA repair and upkeep are two of its primary functions. The enzyme is essential for the generational transmission of genetic information.
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Which options describe advantages of genetic engineering in agriculture?
(Select all that apply.)
having crops that are tougher to harvest
□ having crop
that are resistant to diseases
O having crops that yield more food per acre
having crops that are immune to all diseases
Answer:
□ having crop
that are resistant to diseases
Explanation:
A mutation that occurs in the gametes of an organism will most likely be transferred to which of the following?A. the siblings of the organismB. the offspring of an organismC. the other organisms living nearbyD. the mating partner of an organism
A mutation that occurs in the gametes of an organism will most likely be transferred to the offspring of an organism.
A mutation is a change that occurs in the DNA sequence, either due to mistakes when the DNA is being copied onto the daughter cells or as the result of environmental factors such as UV light and cigarette smoke.
There are different types of Mutations which include Chromosomal aberrations, Point Mutations, and Frameshift Mutations. These can change the proteins which are synthesized from the DNA.
Mutations can have an effect on an organism by means of converting its bodily characteristics (or phenotype) or they could impact the way DNA codes the genetic records (genotype). Whilst mutations arise they could motivate the termination (dying) of an organism or they can be partly lethal.
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The growth hormone axis contains at least one example of a negative feedback loop.
a. True
b. False
Option A. True. The growth hormone axis contains at least one example of a negative feedback loop.
The growth hormone axis contains a negative feedback loop, where the release of growth hormone inhibits the further release of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary gland. The Role of the Negative Feedback Loop in the Growth Hormone AxisThe growth hormone axis is the system responsible for controlling the release of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary gland. It is an important part of the endocrine system that is responsible for:
Regulating growthMetabolismReproductionOne of the ways it regulates these processes is by using a negative feedback loop. In this loop, the release of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary gland will inhibit further release of the hormone. This is an important mechanism that helps to keep the release of growth hormone in balance and maintain homeostasis in the body.
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was the punnett square created in this exercise a good predictor of offspring phenotypes resulting from a dihybrid cross of heterozygous parents?
Answer: Punnett Squares take each of the possible alleles that the parent can pass down and predicts all possible outcomes for the offspring
Explanation:In this example, let’s set the trait for hair color (this is not a real example, it's hypothetical).Capital A is for blonde hair (its dominant)Lowercase a is for brown hair (it's recessive)In the above Punnett square, both parents are heterozygous- they have one Allele for blonde hair and one allele for brown hair. Since blonde hair is dominant, they both have blonde hair.In this Punnett square, 2/4 (50%) of the offspring will have the genotype Aa. This will present itself in the phenotype of blonde hair.1/4 (25%) of the offspring will have the genotype AA, which is homozygous for blonde hair.Lastly, 1/4 (25%) of the offspring will have the genotype aa, and this is homozygous recessive for brown hair.A Punnett square makes this much easier to visualize.
2. A biologist studied a nonnative plant species growing on a riverbed. She studied the plant over three years, measuring average growth, monitoring water quality, and observing the effect of this plant on other river organisms. The biologist concluded that the plant was invasive and that it was lowering the amount of oxygen in the river. She wants river authorities to remove the plant to keep it from spreading to other rivers and lakes. River authorities want proof that the explanation is valid. Which of these is the BEST way for the biologist to get validity for this study?
According to the Biologist Cell function is often compared to the operation of a factory or city as Nucleus. It should be compared to a neighborhood. Thus, option C is correct.
What are centrioles?Centrioles are small, cylindrical cell organelles, present near the nuclei of animal cells. They are involved in formation of spindle fibers at the time of cell division that help in proper separation of chromosomes during cell division. Plant cells do not have centrioles.
Nucleus and ribosomes are present in both animal and plant cells, while cell wall is found only in plant cell. Thus, the organelle in diagram that should be listed under 'animal only' will be 'centriole.'
Therefore, Cell function is often compared to the operation of a factory or city as Nucleus. It should be compared to a neighborhood. Thus, option C is correct.
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which type of filament is more permanent than other filaments and can maintain the cell structure even after the cell dies
Type of filament is more permanent than other filaments and can maintain the cell structure even after the cell dies is Intermediate filaments
The intermediate filaments are a permanent part of the cytoskeleton and help provide structure for the cell. They are also essential in anchoring the cell to other cells, called cell cohesion, and to the extracellular matrix.
Intermediate filaments are more permanent fixtures of the cytoskeleton than are the other two classes. They reinforce cell shape and fix organelle location.Intermediate filaments have a diameter of about 10 nm, which is intermediate between the diameters of the two other principal elements of the cytoskeleton, actin filaments (about 7 nm) and microtubules (about 25 nm). In contrast to actin filaments and microtubules, the intermediate filaments are not directly involved in cell movements. Instead, they appear to play basically a structural role by providing mechanical strength to cells and tissues.
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how can you tell whether the test microorganism was sensitive or resistant to the chemotherapeutic agent
by the Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion, you tell whether the test microorganism was sensitive or resistant to the chemotherapeutic agent
The Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion susceptibility test is designed to evaluate the susceptibility or resistance of pathogenic aerobic and facultative anaerobic bacteria to various antimicrobial compounds.
This information can then be used to help a doctor decide on the best course of treatment for a patient. In the Kirby-Bauer test, bacteria are put on a solid growth media plate, and then antibiotic wafers (seen as white disks) are added to the plate. Areas of clear media surrounding the disks show that the antibiotic prevents bacterial growth after allowing the germs to develop overnight. When testing for antibiotic susceptibility in the lab, we employ both the Kirby-Bauer test and the disk diffusion test. All of its findings indicate that the target-tested antibiotics were diffused on Muller Hinton Agar plates.
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what kind of molecule is g3p?
Where does a plant get the carbon dioxide that it needs for the dark reaction of photosynthesis?
cam plants close their _____ during the day and open them at night.
why is the dark reaction called a cycle?
Which of the following statements concerning the electron transport chain is false?
a. The final electron acceptor is oxygen.
b. Each NADH yields three ATP molecules.
c. Each FADH2 yields two ATP molecules.
d. The electron transport chain will work whether oxygen is present or not.
G3P refers to Glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate, which is a monophosphate ester. It is a three carbon sugar molecule with molecular formula C₃H₇O₆P. It has high importance in Calvin cycle.
Plants get their carbon dioxide from atmosphere which is captured by the stroma of the chloroplast and then it is utilized in the Calvin cycle. In CAM plants, stomata open during dark and remain closed during day. In photosynthesis, dark reaction is named so because it is independent of light and it ensures assimilation of carbon dioxide and production of glucose. It is also known as Calvin cycle. The statement concerning the electron transport chain that the electron transport chain will work whether oxygen is present or not is false, which suggests option D is the right answer.
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How many DNA molecules would there be after four rounds of PCR if the initial reaction mixture contained two molecules?
A. 32
B. 8
C. 64
D. 16
The correct option is D ; 16 , A method known as PCR, or polymerase chain reaction, amplifies a DNA template by using a variety of primers, free nucleotides, and a polymerase enzyme.
Genetic engineering and even investigative forensics make significant use of PCR. A single gene can be amplified using PCR.
Option D, which is 16, is the right response since [tex]2^{4}[/tex]=16.
Note: Taq polymerase, primers, and free nucleotides are crucial molecules required in the PCR process, which amplifies DNA templates.
Thermal cycling guarantees that each phase begins and ends.
Depending on the kind of DNA being amplified, there are certain temperature requirements for each phase of a single cycle.
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autocrine stimulation is the ability of cancer cells to: a. stimulate secretions that turn off normal growth inhibitors. b. secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth. c. divert nutrients away from normal tissue for their own use. d. stimulate angiogenesis to create their own blood supply.
The autocrine stimulation is the ability of cancer cells to Secrete increase elements that stimulate their very own increase.
Cancer cells should have mutations that allow them to proliferate withinside the absence of outside increase signals. To reap this, a few cancers accumulate the cappotential to secrete increase elements that stimulate their very own increase, a manner referred to as autocrine stimulation. The final alternatives do now no longer describe autocrine stimulation.
Autocrine stimulation refers to high quality autocrine secretion, which features to stimulate mobileular growth. Many of the high quality autocrine loops were tested in human colorectal carcinoma (CRC), which can be taken into consideration to play an critical position withinside the initiation and development of the cancer.
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how are innate and adaptive imunity different innate immunity is the defense we are born with
The innate kind of immunity is typically passed on to kids from parents. Adaptive immunity cannot be inherited because it is not transmitted from parents to children.
Everyone is born with inherent (or natural) immunity, a form of all-encompassing defense. The skin, for instance, serves as a barrier to prevent pathogens from entering the body. Additionally, the immune system can tell when an invader is alien and potentially harmful. The innate and adaptive immune systems are two subsystems of the immune system. Innate immunity is typically thought of as a vague reaction, while the adaptive immune system is considered to be quite specialized.
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the number of genes estimated in the haploid genome is about 21000. how many genes are present in a zygote
The genes are present in a zygote when the number of genes estimated in the haploid genome is about 21000 is 42,000
Union of haploid genomes doubles the number of genes present (fertilization). The Human Genome Project has revealed that there are probably about 20,000-25,000 'haploid' protein coding genes.
Haploid refers to the presence of a single set of chromosomes in an organism's cells. Sexually reproducing organisms are diploid (having two sets of chromosomes, one from each parent). In humans, only the egg and sperm cells are haploid.Why are genomes haploid?
During fertilisation, an egg and sperm (gametes) combine to form a cell that contains a complete complement of DNA. In humans, these gametes are haploid as they have one copy of each chromosome, contributed from each parent.
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during an action potential, the relative charge across the membrane of an axon is reversed. which ion makes the largest contribution to this change in potential, and in what direction does the ion move?
In the depolarization step of action potential where the membrane resting potential is reversed by the rush of sodium ions into a neuron.
A membrane potential shift from -70mV to +30mV for a limited period of time is known as an action potential.
The moving action potential has three stages:
1) The depolarization step, where sodium ions rush into a neuron and reverse the membrane resting potential; and
2) repolarization, which is a mechanism that restores the resting voltage of the membrane and the ionic concentration in the cell, is caused by the closure of the voltage-gated sodium channels and the opening of the potassium channels.
3) Hyperpolarization, when excessive potassium ion efflux occurs as a result of some open potassium channels increasing potassium permeability and causing a drop in the membrane potential.
4) The action potential, which is a transient reversal of membrane potential that travels through the axon, comprises three phases that are described above.
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what is the expected functional consequence of movement of a transposable element within the genome?
A transposable element is a segment of DNA that can move or “jump” from one location in the genome to another. This phenomenon, known as transposition, is an important process in the evolution of many organisms, and it can have a variety of functional consequences.
The most common outcome of transposition is the alteration or disruption of gene expression. Transposable elements can insert themselves into gene coding regions, causing a change in the sequence of the gene and potentially altering its expression. This can result in the production of an aberrant protein, or it can prevent the production of a functional protein altogether. In either case, this alteration of gene expression can lead to changes in the function of the organism.
Transposable elements can also affect gene expression indirectly. For example, they can insert themselves into regulatory sequences, such as promoters or enhancers, and alter the binding of transcription factors that control gene expression. This can result in changes in gene expression without altering the coding sequence of the gene.
In addition to altering gene expression, transposition can also lead to genetic rearrangements. Transposition can cause deletions, inversions, or duplications of a gene, as well as large-scale chromosomal rearrangements. These rearrangements can have a variety of functional consequences, including the activation or inactivation of specific genes.
Finally, transposition can lead to the formation of novel genetic elements. Transposable elements can generate new combinations of genetic sequences, which can lead to the creation of new genes or regulatory sequences. This can result in new functions for the organism, and can be an important source of evolutionary innovation.
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After proteins are made they must be sorted and packaged in preparation for use by the cell.
a. true
b. false
Proteins are produced on the endoplasmic reticulum. These are synthesized by the ribosomes. After proteins are made, they must be sorted and packaged in preparation for use by the cell. Therefore, the given statement is true.
The place, where the sorting and packaging of the proteins take place is called golgi bodies. Newly formed proteins in the ER are mainly glycoproteins. These glycoproteins are processed and changed in the golgi bodies.
The sorting and processing of the proteins are important because the proteins need to be transported to their final location so that these can be used there. These sorted-out proteins are packed into different types of vesicles that can transfer the proteins to their respective final destinations.
Hence, the answer is (a).
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This type of irrigation, often used in orchards growing tree crops, distributes water to plants through small parallel channels between crop rows but often leads to increased soil erosion in the field.
a. Drip irrigation
b. Flood irrigation
c. Furrow irrigation
d. Spray irrigation
Furrow irrigation, which is frequently used in orchards with tree crops.
What distinguishes flood irrigation from furrow irrigation?Furrow irrigation, a common practice in orchards growing tree crops, provides water to plants through narrow parallel ditches between crop rows, however it frequently causes increased soil erosion in the field.Surface irrigation, often referred to as flood or furrow irrigation, involves farmers pouring water through narrow trenches that cut through their crops. It is likely one of the earliest techniques for watering fields.Surface irrigation techniques using gravity-based water distribution include flood and furrow irrigation.They vary in that furrow irrigation involves flooding only the trenched rows between plants, whereas flood irrigation involves flooding an entire field and, as a result, spreading water equally.In comparison to drip irrigation systems, which waste about 3% of the water they use, furrow irrigation systems are projected to waste 40% of the water they consume.An irrigation technique that enables precisely regulated water application is drip irrigation, commonly referred to as trickle irrigation or micro-irrigation.To learn more about furrow irrigation refer to:
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which scenario might slow population growth? select all that apply. adaptation that allows the population to gather nutrients more efficiently agricultural runoff providing additional nutrient resources competition within species for the same resources
The younger population will also decrease due to the high number of women dying during their reproductive years and the decreased likelihood that infected offspring would survive. Lower growth rates will be the outcome of some populations' altered age and sex structures.
These options are all viable possibilities. - It could cause "dead zones" devoid of aquatic life. It improves the health and species variety of aquatic environments. Which of the following statements best describes how an atmosphere rich in oxygen came to be? The rates of photosynthesis were higher than the rates of oxygen consumption. When: fewer children are born; families with children relocate to larger towns and cities; young, more educated people move to larger towns and cities, the population's size and demographics change.The absence of nutrients in a body of water does not cause eutrophication.
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