Where does rna not produce during replication

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

This diagram shows an RNA molecule entering a cell and then replicating itself. It’s the SARS-CoV- 2 virus, which most people call COVID. It uses RNA instead of DNA as it’s genetic material; that’s common among viruses.

Many RNA-based viruses don’t use DNA at all to replicate, though some like HIV do.

In order for SARS-CoV-2 RNA to replicate there must be an enzyme called either RNA-dependent RNA polymerase or RNA replicase. RNA-based viruses produce a version of this enzyme so their genetic material can be copied.

SARS-CoV-2 uses a single stranded version of RNA but some other viruses use double stranded RNA that’s entirely analogous to double stranded DNA.

Modern animals, plants, and bacteria all use DNA as their genetic material, probably because DNA is more stable, but the very first living things probably used RNA.

Explanation:

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Where Does Rna Not Produce During Replication

Related Questions

color blindness is an example of x-linked inheritance. hemophilia is another example of x-linked inheritance, also from a recessive allele (h). the dominant allele (h) determines whether the person possesses normal blood clotting. a person with hemophilia has a permanent tendency for hemorrhaging due to a deficiency of one of the clotting factors (viii-antihemophilic factor). determine the offspring from a cross of a mother who is a carrier (heterozygous) for the disease and a father with normal blood coagulation. (some labels may not be used.)

Answers

The mother's genotype is X¹X while  the father's genotype is XY.

The offspring will be XX¹ XX X¹Y XY there will be only one man affected by hemophilia.

What is hemophilia?

Blood clots incorrectly in people with haemophilia, an inherited bleeding disorder. Spontaneous bleeding and bleeding after injury or surgery could come from this. Numerous clotting proteins found in blood can help stop bleeding.  Low amounts of either factor VIII (8) or factor IX are seen in hemophiliacs (9). The quantity of factor in a person's blood determines the severity of their hemophilia. The likelihood of bleeding, which can cause major health issues, increases as the amount of the component decreases.

Hemophilia can occasionally strike a person later in life. Middle-aged or elderly adults, young women who have recently given birth or are in the final stages of pregnancy, or people who are older are involved in the majority of cases. The right medical care frequently helps this illness get better.

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The light dependent reactions supply the Calvin cycle with co2 and ATP
true or false?

Answers

Sunlight energy is utilized by the light-dependent processes to create ATP, NADPH, and oxygen. Chloroplast thylakoid membranes contain light-dependent processes (ATP and ADPH the cell can actually use in Calvin Cycle).

What light dependent reactions in Calvin cycle?

The light reactions supply the Calvin cycle with ATP and NADPH, and it returns to them with ADP, Pi, and NADP+.

The Calvin cycle's carbon fixation stage is supplied with ATP and NADPH by the light reactions, while the light reactions are supplied with water and electrons by the Calvin cycle.

Therefore, it is true that The light dependent reactions supply the Calvin cycle with Co2 and ATP.

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dark-skinned people living in an area with limited exposure to sunlight, such as the north pole, are more prone to become deficient in this vitamin.

Answers

People with darker skin require longer sun exposure to make vitamin D.

Why black people need Vitamin D:

The most significant supplement you may not be taking—or not getting enough of—is vitamin D. The majority of us—and even our doctors—are unaware that taking it regularly may help prevent some of the most prevalent life-threatening diseases.

Vitamin D is best known for strengthening bones and preventing rickets, a bone disease that was more prevalent in Charles Dickens' time than it is today. More recently, studies have shown that vitamin D also reduces the risk of diabetes, high blood pressure, multiple sclerosis, osteoporosis, dementia, and several types of cancer.

Despite this encouraging news, the majority of Americans don't get nearly enough vitamin D. Additionally, some researchers have suggested that vitamin D insufficiency among African Americans is a "hidden pandemic" and that low levels are to blame for greater prevalence of ailments including diabetes, hypertension, and heart disease. The Chicago Sun-Times went even farther, establishing a relationship between low vitamin D levels and African-American mortality rates from aggressive breast and prostate cancer.

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Which of the following statements about gravity is true?
A. Gravity pulls objects toward the center of Earth.
B. Gravity only pulls you to the center of Earth if you are at the top of it.
C. Gravity only pulls objects toward the center of Earth when you are in contact with it. D. Gravity pulls all objects toward the center of Earth except when you are floating on water.

Answers

A.

Gravity is the force of attraction between any two objects in the universe. Even you have your own gravity, you just aren’t massive enough for it to be visible on human scales. Gravity is a constant force so it doesn’t only pull if you are on top of it so it can’t be B, Gravity keeps the moon in rotation so it isn’t C, and people do sink when in water (except when they lie flat to increase buoyancy which is beyond the scope of this question) so it isn’t D. Therefore, it must be A

In colorectal cancer, several genes must be mutated in order to make a cell a cancer cell. Which of the following kinds of genes would you expect to be mutated?a. genes involved in control of the cell cycleb. genes coding for enzymes that act in the colonc. the genes of the bacteria that are abundant in the colond. genes that are especially susceptible to mutation

Answers

In the entire world, colorectal cancer (CRC) is the second most frequent disease in women and the third most common cancer in males.

What genes do colorectal cancers have mutations in?

One of the most prevalent inherited cancer syndromes is colon cancer. The chromosomes 2 and 3 have the genes MLH1 and MSH2, which have both been linked to colorectal cancer.

Typically, the proteins produced by these genes aid in the correction of errors in DNA replication.

What three categories of genes are associated with cancer?

Breast, ovarian, colon, prostate, and pancreatic cancers may all be at increased risk due to the genes ATM, PALB2, and CHEK2.

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A certain parasite is introduced to both areas. This parasite generally infects only one species of tree while the others remain unharmed. Which area would be more likely to survive if this parasite were to be introduced to the population? Why?

Answers

The area that more likely would survive if a parasite were introduced to the population after it was introduced to two areas and generally infects only one species of the tree while the other remains unharmed is the area having the tree host because this ecosystem is prepared to face the ecosystem disturbance.

What is the process of ecosystem disturbance?

The process of ecosystem disturbance is defined as any external factor such as in this case the introduction of an invasive parasite that is able to infect native hosts which may alter the homeostasis state or internal equilibrium of such ecosystems.

Therefore, with this data, we can see that the process of ecosystem disturbance is a definition that can be used to understand how the presence of invasive species may lead to irreversible changes in a given ecosystem while others may remain unaltered.

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monoclonal antibodies and can be used to treat certain types of cancers in a process known as immunotherapy. polyclonal antibodies cytokines leukocytes macrophages

Answers

Solitary antibodies Immunotherapy, which employs cytokines, can be utilized to treat specific tumors.

What does immunotherapy actually do?

Your immune system is assisted in fighting cancer via immunotherapy, a sort of cancer treatment. Your body's immune system aids in the defense against infections and other disorders. White blood cells, organs, and lymphatic system components make up its composition. Biological therapy includes immunotherapy.

Is immunotherapy superior to chemotherapy?

Both chemotherapy and immunotherapy have the ability to be successful cancer therapies. One isn't always superior to the other. The one that effectively treats your illness depends on a number of variables, including the location of the tumour and the distance it has spread.

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which of the following would support the hypothesis that bacteria have mutually beneficial relationships with us?

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The statement that supports the hypothesis that bacteria have a mutually beneficial relationship is "Mice that were made 'germ-free' didn't absorb and metabolize nutrients as well."

After long years of evolution, it's hypothesized that host-bacterial associations have developed into more prosperous relationships, creating biological mechanisms that mutually benefit both the host and the microbes. Many examples of this theory are present in mammals.

Gut bacteria in humans, for example, seem to contribute to non-infectious immune disorders like autoimmunity and inflammatory bowel disease. It's still not fully known yet how they work, but the ongoing research shows finding and concepts that describe the mutualism between humans (gut) and gut bacteria.

Your question seems incomplete, but the completed version is most likely as follows:

Which of the following would support the hypothesis that bacteria have mutually beneficial relationships with us?

Bacteria can metabolize food using alternate pathways.Most intestinal bacteria cannot live outside the body.Mice that were made "germ-free" did not absorb and metabolize nutrients as well.Bacteria derive benefits from waste materials in our intestines.

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which of the following is not associated with the oxidative burst employed by phagocytic cells to kill bacteria

Answers

Mammalian phagocytes that have been triggered undergo an oxidative burst in which a significant amount of reactive oxygen species (ROS) is rapidly released into the phagosome to kill bacteria that have been consumed.

During an oxidative burst, what happens?

One of the earliest detectable components of a plant's defence mechanism is the oxidative burst, which is characterised by a sudden, transitory synthesis of enormous numbers of reactive oxygen species (ROS). This Review first goes over ROS's chemistry (superoxide radical, hydrogen peroxide and hydroxyl radical).

Why is oxidative burst crucial for phagocyte function?

Phagocytic cells use reactive oxygen species (ROS), which are tiny molecules produced from oxygen, to combat infections. The NOX2 NADPH-oxidase in macrophages produces an oxidative burst that is crucial for both oxidative and non-oxidative death of pathogens that have been absorbed.

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Which type of cell transport is used by mitochondria to generate energy by
allowing hydrogen (H*) ions to flow through a membrane protein?


A.Exocytosis
B.Facilitated diffusion
C.Endocytosis
D.Active transport

Answers

Option D I think hope this answer is helpful

in pea plants, yellow seeds are dominant to green seeds, and the yellow and green alleles are represented with y and y, respectively. match each genotype with the correct description of alleles.

Answers

YY stands for homozygotes of the yellow allele, Yy for heterozygotes of the yellow and green alleles, and YY for homozygotes of the green allele in pea plants

In biology, what is a genotype?

The particular set of alleles for such a given gene that make up an organism's genotype. The flower-color gene, for instance, may produce the genotypes red-red, red-white, & white-white in the pea plants mentioned above. The phenotype is an organism's outward display of its allellic combination (genotype).

What makes genotype significant?

From embryonic development to adulthood, a person's genotype defines their inherited potentials and restrictions. The full complex of genes acquired from both parents makes up an individual's genotype in sexually reproducing organisms.

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yeast infections are caused by group of answer choices saccharomyces cerevisiae. penicillium. aspergillus. histoplasma. candida albicans.\

Answers

Yeast infections are caused by E. Candida Albicans.

What is a yeast infection?

Vaginal yeast infection or candidiasis is a disease caused by a fungus or yeast. A healthy vagina contains bacteria and some yeast cells. However, when the balance of bacteria and yeast changes, the yeast cells can multiply, causing itching, swelling, and irritation.

The cause of this infection is candida Albicans fungus. The vagina naturally has a balanced level of yeast, including candida, and bacteria. Certain bacteria (lactobacillus) act to prevent the overgrowth of the yeast.

However, that balance can be disturbed. Overgrowth of candida or penetration of yeast into the deeper cell layers of the vagina can cause symptoms of a yeast infection.

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hemosiderosis is a condition in which excess is stored as hemosiderin in cells of many organs and tissues.

Answers

Hemosiderosis is the condition when the iron level in organs or tissues is overloaded. This iron is stored by hemosiderin protein.

What is hemosiderosis?

Around 70% of iron will be found in red blood cells. The iron in red blood cells performs to carry oxygen. As the red blood cells die, they release iron which becomes hemosiderin. Hemosiderin is a protein that stores iron in body tissues. If the hemosiderin is overloaded, it will cause hemosiderosis.

Deposition of iron results in functional damage to many organs such as the heart, liver, spleen, endocrine gland, and others. The lungs and kidneys are often sites of hemosiderosis.

Hemosiderosis often doesn’t cause symptoms but over time the symptoms that could appear are coughing, fatigue, difficulty breathing, etc.

Thus, excessive accumulation of hemosiderin in organs and tissues causes hemosiderosis.

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how is gender equality related to population growth?

Answers

Answer:

The areas with the fastest population growth also have some of the worst gender equality scores.

Explanation:

When women are free to choose what happens to their bodies and lives, average family size plummets, as is evident in all countries with below-replacement fertility rates.

help this one’s really hard

Answers

An analogy for cell cell division as a student preparing to take an examination is given below:

In a living cell, it splits into two; after an examination, the result is either of two; pass or fail.

What is meant by cell division?

Cell division can simply be defined as the process involving nuclear and cytoplasmic division leasing to the increase in the number of cells in an organism. There are two major types of cell division;

MitosisMeiosis

Within the context of the task given above, the process of cell division can also be likened to a student preparing for a chemistry examination. The student thinks about splitting his preparation into different parts such as studying extensively for the following parts:

Physical chemistryOrganic chemistryCalculations in chemistryPhysical chemistry.

Each of the these divisions above, when adequately prepared for makes the students pass the examination or fails if he didn't prepare well.

In conclusion, we can now confirm from the explanation given above that cell division ensures the growth and replacement of new cells.

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the goal of antimicrobial treatment is to kill or inhibit the growth of microbes without damaging the host. this is referred to as selective toxicity. to achieve selective toxicity, antimicrobial drugs generally target bacterial cell structures, enzymes, or processes that are unique to the microbe and not found in host cells. in seeking targets that are unique to the microbes, developers of antimicrobial drugs must consider the differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. those structures that are exclusive to or distinctly different in prokaryotic cells are likely targets for antibacterial drugs.

Answers

The aim of antimicrobial treatment is to kill or inhibit the infecting organism without damaging the host; this is known as selective toxicity.

What is antimicrobial treatment ?

Antimicrobial treatment is the use of antimicrobial drugs to treat bacterial, fungal, or viral infections. Antimicrobial drugs are used to kill or stop the growth of microorganisms, including bacteria, fungi, and viruses. These drugs work by either killing the microorganisms directly or by inhibiting their growth.

What is  selective toxicity?

Selective toxicity is the ability of a chemical or biological agent to target a specific organism or cell type while leaving other organisms or cells unharmed. It is an important concept in the development of drugs, pesticides, and other treatments. Selective toxicity is desirable because it means that the agent can be used without causing harm to other organisms in the environment.

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disruption of the dorsal column-mediated lemniscal system prevents the transmission of temperature information.

Answers

Disruption of the  dorsal column-mediated lemniscal prevents the transmission of visceral pain information.

What is dorsal and ventral?

An organism's rear or upper side is referred to as its dorsal surface (from the Latin dorsum, meaning "back"). The dorsal side of the skull is the top when referring to it. The front or bottom side of an organism is referred to as having a ventral surface (from the Latin venter, meaning "belly").

Where on the body is the dorsal?

The head and the rear of the trunk are both located in the dorsal cavity, which is located in the posterior, the back, of the body. The brain and spinal cavities are separated by the dorsal cavity. The majority of the upper section of the skull is taken up by the cranial cavity, which houses the brain.

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The complete question is -

Disruption of the _______ system prevents the transmission of _______ information.

As a fish moves from salt water to fresh water, its cells:
A. become stem cells.
B. begin endocytosis.
C. gain water.
D. fill with salt.

Answers

answer: C

Explanation: cells will fill up with excess water therefore it would die.


Urea diffused in all regions of the filter during countercurrent flow.
Using what you know about the sizes of urea and potassium, which graph shows what would happen to potassium
during countercurrent flow?
Diffuse

Answers

Consider a scenario in which urea is diffusing from an area of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration while the blood and dialysate are moving in the same direction.

Diffusion therefore occurs throughout the entire filter. The dialysate's urea concentration is shown by the blue line, while the blood's urea concentration is shown by the red line.

What is diffusion?

A substance diffuses when it moves from a region of high concentration to one of lower concentration. When particles in liquids and gases randomly collide and disperse, diffusion takes place. For living things, diffusion is a crucial mechanism because it governs how molecules enter and exit cells.

What distinguishes osmosis from diffusion?

Diffusion permits both solvent and solute molecules to move freely, whereas osmosis only permits solvent molecules to do so.

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Consider a scenario in which urea is diffusing from an area of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration while the blood and dialysate are moving in the same direction.

Diffusion therefore occurs throughout the entire filter. The dialysate's urea concentration is shown by the blue line, while the blood's urea concentration is shown by the red line.

What is diffusion?

A substance diffuses when it moves from a region of high concentration to one of lower concentration. When particles in liquids and gases randomly collide and disperse, diffusion takes place. For living things, diffusion is a crucial mechanism because it governs how molecules enter and exit cells.

What distinguishes osmosis from diffusion?

Diffusion permits both solvent and solute molecules to move freely, whereas osmosis only permits solvent molecules to do so.

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A pond contains many different types of organisms. The table below lists some of these organisms and their methods of reproduction.

Organism Method of Reproduction
Pantala flavescens sperm and egg fusion
Spirodela polyrhiza budding
Naegleria fowleri binary fission
Hydra oligactis budding

Over time, the pond slowly becomes more acidic due to the release of chemicals from a nearby factory. Which of the organisms would most likely survive the change to their environment?

A.
Naegleria fowleri, because these organisms would have a high level of genetic variation due to asexual reproduction
B.
Hydra oligactis, because these organisms would have a low level of genetic variation due to sexual reproduction
C.
Pantala flavescens, because these organisms would have a high level of genetic variation due to sexual reproduction
D.
Spirodela polyrhiza, because these organisms would have a low level of genetic variation due to asexual reproduction

Answers

Answer:

C.

Explanation:

"Pantala flavescens, because these organisms would have a high level of genetic variation due to sexual reproduction"

Because they reproduce sexually they will vary genetically, and asexual reproduction is less likely to do this-- on top of this asexual reproduction is more likely to have negative effects than the latter.

Quote about asexual vs sexual reproduction:

"A disadvantage is that sexual reproduction takes longer than asexual reproduction. A mate must be found, the egg must be fertilized by sperm, and then the offspring develop. The benefit of introducing genetic variation into the species, however, outweighs this disadvantage."    

Or to put it simply the more genetic variation the higher advantage to survive.

C- Pantala flavescens is your answer.

the time it takes for the blood to return to thecapillaries is called the capillary refill time and should be seconds or less.

Answers

The time it takes for the blood to return to the capillaries is called the capillary refill time and should be two seconds or less. The correct answer is A.

Understanding the Capillary Refill Time

Capillary refill time, or CRT, evaluation gives additional information on peripheral perfusion. The CRT, when combined with respiratory effort, pulse quality and rate, and mucus color, may help assess a client's volume of blood and peripheral perfusion as well as provide information related to shock etiology.

Capillary refill time only takes one to two seconds. This correlates to healthy blood volume and circulation. A CRT that lasts more than 2 seconds indicates inadequate perfusion because of peripheral vasoconstriction. In the meantime, a CRT of less than one second indicates vasodilation and a hyperdynamic state.

This question should be written as follows, with answer options:

The time it takes for the blood to return to the capillaries is called the capillary refill time and should be __________ seconds or less.

A. 2B. 4C. 5D. 8

The correct answer is A.

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which substances are carried from the muscles

Answers

Answer:

oxygen and nutrients

Explanation:

Muscle cells are supplied by tiny capillaries that deliver oxygen and nutrients and remove waste products such as carbon dioxide and lactic acid.

A proton gradient is formed in the mitochondria such that the concentration of protons (h ) is higher on one side of the inner mitochondrial membrane than on the other side. what is the purpose of this proton gradient?

Answers

The purpose of this proton gradient is that it Generates ATP in the electron transport chain.

What is meant by a proton gradient?

In a mitochondrial membrane, a proton gradient is created when the proton concentration is greater outside the inner membrane than inside the membrane. It develops as a result of the respiration's electron transport chain.

Proton gradients drive ATP synthesis via the enzyme ATP synthase. ADP + Pi are combined to generate an ATP molecule as protons pass via the enzyme ATP synthase.

What creates a proton gradient?

A proton gradient is produced when two quinol (4H+4e) oxidations at the Qo site lead to the production of one quinol (2H+2e) at the Qi site (in total six protons are translocated: two protons reduce quinone to a quinol and four protons are released from two ubiquinol molecules).

Where does proton gradient occur?

An electron transport chain transfers a high-energy electron to the inner mitochondrial membrane. The energy released pumps out hydrogen of the matrix space. As a result, a gradient is created, which uses ATP synthase to drive hydrogen back through the membrane.

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Which of the following are examples of genetic drift?
(Choose all that apply)
A. Bottleneck effect
B. Founder Effect
C. Lamarck Effect
D. Equilibrium Effect

Answers

When a population is drastically reduced in number, genetic drift manifests itself most dramatically in a phenomenon known as the bottleneck effect, hence option A is correct.

What is genetic drift?

Natural disasters (earthquakes, floods, and fires) can completely devastate a population, killing the majority of people and leaving just a few, haphazard survivors in their wake.

Genetic drift is a random process that can produce significant population changes quickly.

Therefore, regularly tiny population numbers and drastic population size decreases are known as "bottlenecks," hence option A is correct.

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D
Question 7
15. Identify one of the major muscles moving the hands into the position shown.
16. Identify the major muscle moving the right thigh into the position shown.
17. Identify the major muscle moving the right leg into the position shown.

Answers

Can you and a picture please of the hands

18. Different global temperature zones are based on
lines of latitude on the Earth.
A True
B False

Answers

I think its B False

What is the scientific method? Answer in 2-4 sentences, including the words below:

Observation

Hypothesis

Data

Conclusion​

Answers

Answer: The scientific method is a series of processes that people can use to gather knowledge about the world around them, improve that knowledge, and attempt to explain why and/or how things occur. This method involves making observations, forming questions, making hypotheses, doing an experiment, analyzing the data, and forming a conclusion.

Explanation:

2. What must happen in DNA for transcription to begin?
A The bonds between the base pairs must break.
B. The bonds between the base pairs must duplicate.
C. The bonds between the bases and the sugar phosphate backbones must break. Vc
D. The bonds between the bases and the sugar phosphate backbones must duplicate.

Answers

The bonds between the base pairs must break, to expose DNA for transcription to begin, hence option A is correct.

What is transcription?

A little section of the DNA double helix is first opened and unraveled during transcription in order to reveal the nucleotides on each DNA strand.

RNA polymerase connects to a promoter region close to the start of a gene to start transcription (directly or through helper proteins).

A new, complementary RNA molecule is created by RNA polymerase using a template from one of the DNA strands (the template strand).

Therefore,  to expose DNA for transcription to begin, hence option A is correct.

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Plants are often compared to fungi, but they are not as closely related. Using your
understanding of phylogenetic relationships, explain why fungi and plants are not as
closely related as people think. Discuss the similarities and differences between
fungi and plants. Make sure to include discussions of their metabolism, reproduction,
structure and other important characteristics.

Answers

Plants create energy by metabolizing nutrients absorbed from the environment. Fungi are decomposes, metabolizing by taking nutrients from something else such as another plant. Plants use the energy they create to grow and produce seeds and spores, similar to fungi who produce spores as well. As for their overall structures, plants contain chlorophyll within their cells while fungi do not. The cell wall of fungi is composed of chitin, glucans, and protein while plants cell walls are typically made of cellulose, agar, hemicellulose, and pectin.

1. What is a nonrenewable resource?
A. a resource that is used for energy
B. a resource that is in limited supply
C. a resource that harms the environment when it is used
D. a resource that can replace itself quickly

2. Are all rocks made up of one mineral?
A. No. Some rocks may contain several minerals.
B. Yes. If it contains more minerals, then it is an ore
C. No. If it contains more minerals, however, then it is not useful to people.
D. Yes. If it contains more minerals, then it would lose its orderly internal structure.

3. Coal is a very useful rock that formed over millions of years from the remains of plants. Is coal a mineral?
A. No, coal is not a mineral because coal is made of dead plants.
B. No, coal is not a mineral because coal can be burned to produce electricity and heat.
C. Yes, coal is a mineral because all rocks that are useful to people are minerals.
D. Yes, coal is a mineral because all rocks are nonliving solid minerals.

4. Which is a positive aspect of fossil fuels?
A. They do not need processing to produce energy.
B. They provide energy for cars, trains, and heat.
C. They are ecologically friendly.
D. They can be recycled and reused.

5. Which is a negative aspect of fossil fuels?
A. They are difficult to transport.
B. They cause pollution on Earth.
C. They take a long time to produce energy.
D. They are difficult to find.

6. Which is a disadvantage of solar power?
A. It requires turbines.
B. It can be harmful to wildlife.
C. It requires burning fuel, which causes air pollution.
D. It can only be used where there is lots of sunlight.

7. Which is a thick, sticky, tar-like deposit of bitumen mixed into sandy sediment?
A. coal
B. sandstone
C. oil sand
D. shale

8. Which statement best explains an environmental outcome of using fossil fuels for energy?
A. Fossil fuels release carbon dioxide which plants use to make food.
B. When fossil fuels are burned, they release toxic gases into the air that cause pollution and increase global warming.
C. When fossil fuels are burned, hazardous ash is created and carried through the environment by wind and dropped into nearby lakes and ponds.
D. Fossils fuels produce waste that exposes humans to dangerous levels of radiation.

9. Why is soil considered a vital resource?
A. It plays a variety of roles for plants and animals.
B. It is the place where all nutrients on Earth are stored.
C. It provides the source of material for different landforms.
D. It is hard to destroy and easy to make.

10. Which describes a renewable energy resource?
A. It is more prone to serious accidents.
B. It produces less pollutants than fossil fuels.
C. It consists of carbon and hydrogen molecules.
D. It is less expensive than fossil fuels.

11. Use the scenario to answer the question: Edwin buys a water bottle, reuses it twice, and then recycles it. Eleanor buys a water bottle, reuses it twelve times, and then throws it away. Which energy cost would apply to Edwin, but not to Eleanor?
A. the cost of producing the original bottle
B. the cost of processing the bottle after it was no longer used
C. the cost of transporting the bottle to the store
D. the cost of transporting the bottle away from the house

12. Your class goes on a field trip to observe drilling machinery. The geologists at the drill site show you displays of drilled rocks to compare different types of drills and methods. The drilled holes in one rock display are significantly larger than the holes drilled in the display next to it. Given this information, which statement is correct?
A. The rock display with smaller holes shows copper drilling, which is deep underground.
B. The rock display with smaller holes shows petroleum drilling, which is closer to the surface.
C. The rock display with larger holes shows copper drilling, which is closer to the surface.
D. The rock display with larger holes shows petroleum drilling, which is deep underground.

Answers

A nonrenewable resource is a resource that can replace itself quickly. The correct option is D.

Some rocks contain several minerals. The correct option is A.

Coal is not a mineral because coal is made of dead plants. The correct option is A.

A positive aspect of fossil fuels is that fossil fuels provide energy for cars, trains, and heat. The correct option is B.

A negative aspect of fossil fuels is that they cause pollution on Earth. The correct option is B.

A disadvantage of solar power is that it can only be used where there is lots of sunlight. The correct option is D.

Shale is a thick, sticky, tar-like deposit of bitumen mixed into sandy sediment. The correct option is D.

A statement that best explains an environmental outcome of using fossil fuels for energy is that when fossil fuels are burned, they release toxic gases into the air that cause pollution and increase global warming. The correct option is B.

Soil is considered a vital resource because it provides a source of material for different landforms. The correct option is C.

A renewable energy resource produces less pollutants than fossil fuels. The correct option is B.

The cost of processing the bottle after it was no longer used would apply to Edwin, but not to Eleanor. The correct option is B.

The rock display with larger holes shows copper drilling, which is closer to the surface. The correct option is C.

What are renewable energy and non-renewable resources?

Renewable energy sources are energy sources that can easily be replaced when they are used up. They included solar energy and wind energy.

Non-renewable energy resources are resources that are not easily replaced when they are used up. For example fossil fuels.

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