Animals experience an oxidative breakdown of amino acids under three different metabolic conditions: 1. Some amino acids released from protein breakdown that are not required for new protein synthesis go through oxidative degradation during the normal production and destruction of cellular proteins (protein turnover).
Without going through oxidation, some amino acids can be deaminated to release NH3. (a) Amino acid dehydrases: Serine, threonine, and homoserine are the hydroxy amino acids. They go via non-oxidative deamination, which PLP-dependent dehydrases catalyze (dehydratases).In oxidative deamination, amino groups are taken off of amino acids, producing matching keto acids and ammonia in the process. As a result, amino acids are in a sense "wasted" when they are not employed to create protein or other nitrogen-containing molecules.
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what is the finite window of opportunity for cells to develop into a particular tissue or organ?
The window of opportunity is called Critical period.
During pregnancy, every part of the baby's body forms at a certain point. During this time, the body can be very sensitive to damage caused by drugs, alcohol, or other harmful stresses.
All pregnancies have a chance of starting with a birth defect. This is called background risk. If an exposure increases the chance of a birth defect, that chance depends on which part of the body is developing at the time of the exposure.
Once the body parts are formed, the risk of developing serious birth defects disappears. However, some exposures can affect the growth and function of some parts of the body.
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Chaparral vegetation occurs around much of the central valley of central and southern California. This biome is very similar to that found ____a. along the coast of Great Britain.b. on the southeast coast of the United States.c. in the Mediterranean region.d. in the Australian interior.e. in central Asia
Much of central and southern California's central valley is surrounded by chaparral vegetation. This biome and the one in central Asia share a lot of similarities.
What is chaparral vegetation?
The majority of the chaparral may be found in northern Mexico and California, where the climate is comparable to that of the Mediterranean region. The Chaparral, also known as California's woodlands and grasslands, can be found on the California coast of western North America. Much of central and southern California's central valley is surrounded by chaparral vegetation. This biome and others are fairly similar.
The Mediterranean Basin, California, the center of their arid inner margin, and along drier coastal margins to vegetation are the five areas of the world.
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ABO blood types are based on the inherited A and B antigens. One parent is heterozygous type AO, and one parent is homozygous recessive type O.
What percentage of their offspring would have type O blood?
Answer:
75percent as heterozygous type and homozygous recessive provide one heterozygous type,AO and 3 homozygous recessive,OO
from the point of view of conductive heat loss, which adaptations would be beneficial to animals living in extremely cold climates?
Adaptations that would be beneficial to animals living in extremely cold climates are:
A. Lots of tissues, like fat, with low thermal conductivity
B. Thick skin
C. Small surface area
Tissue is a group of cells which have comparable shape and that function collectively as a unit. A nonliving cloth, known as the intercellular matrix, fills the areas among the cells. This could be abundant in a few tissues and minimum in others.
In simple terms, tissue can be described as a set of cells with comparable shape and function are termed as tissues.
They form a cellular organizational level, intermediate among the cells and organ device. Organs are then created by combining the functional companies of tissues.
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The nurse caring for a patient diagnosed with squamous cell carcinoma knows that which patient findings are risk factors for the development of skin cancer?
The nurse checks the risk factors for all forms of pores and skin cancer encompassing skin that burns without difficulty, blonde or purple hair, a record of immoderate solar exposure, which includes sunburns, tanning mattress uses a weakened immune system, and a development history of skin most cancers.
The nurse must keep in mind assessing the 3 elements customer's skin temperature, Moisture, and Texture. the usage of the nursing method, nurses can play a key position in identifying people who have got this odd mole sample, instructing patients approximately cancer threat-reduction techniques,
And coordinating pigmented lesion surveillance applications geared toward both number one prevention and earlier detection and treatment of Squamous cell carcinoma of the pores and skin is a common form of pores and skin cancer that develops inside the squamous cells that make up the center and outer layers of the skin. UV light helps lessen your chance of squamous mobile carcinoma of the pores and skin and different styles of skin cancers.
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How many alleles does an individual need to have this predisposition to ovarian cancer?
An individual must need two alleles in order to have this predisposition to ovarian cancer.
What are the genetic mutations that can lead to ovarian cancer?The genetic mutations that can lead to ovarian cancer may include TP53, BRCA1/2, PIK3CA, and KRAS. All these mutations are responsible for inducing ovarian cancer in new offspring if their parents have mutations in their germ cells.
Everyone has two copies of alleles of the BRCA1 and BRCA2 genes, one copy inherited from their mother and one from their father. This condition is ideal for stimulating diseases like ovarian cancer in offspring, especially in females.
Therefore, an individual must need two alleles in order to have this predisposition to ovarian cancer.
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reactive oxygen intermediates and reactive nitrogen intermediates produced by phagocytic cells are effective in killing invading microorganisms.a. trueb. false
It is true that reactive oxygen intermediates and reactive nitrogen intermediates produced by phagocytic cells are effective in killing invading microorganisms.
Phagocytic cells are a type of immune cell which will surround and kill microorganisms, ingest foreign material, and take away dead cells. It can even boost immune responses. Monocytes, macrophages, and neutrophils ar phagocytes. A vegetative cell may be a form of white vegetative cell.
A microorganism, or microbe, is an organism of microscopic size, which can exist in its noncellular kind or as a colony of cells. The doable existence of unseen microorganism life was suspected from precedent days, like in Jainist scriptures from sixth century BC India.
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of all the offspring resulting from all the matings in this population, what percentage should have the genotype crcr?
The predicted number of people carrying the genotype CRCR is p2, or 64%. 2pq, or 32%, of people are anticipated to have the genotype CRCW.
The anticipated genotype frequencies are p2, 2pq, and q2 if a population has two alleles at a particular site and the allele frequencies are p and q. Once a population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, its frequency distribution won't vary from generation to generation.
A population's genotype frequency is calculated by dividing the number of people having a particular genotype by the overall population size. The visibility rate for the only dominant phenotype is 100%. There is no phenotypic ratio since there is no second phenotype.
The ratio that would be used to represent this outcome is 4:0. However, the genotypic ratio examines potential allele combinations rather than the observable trait (phenotype).
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ergy is
4. Base your answer to the following question on
the graph below which relates the rate of
photosynthesis in a geranium plant to varying
temperature and light intensity.
RELATIVE RATE OF PHOTOSYNTHESIS
100
80.
60
40
20
0
-20
HIGH LIGHT INTENSITY
LOW LIGHT INTENSITY
10
20
TEMPERATURE (°C)
30
The relative rate of photosynthesis is greatest under
which conditions of light intensity and temperature?
A) low light intensity at 25°C
B) low light intensity at 35°C
C) high light intensity at 25°C
D) high light intensity at 35°C
Answer:
The relative rate of photosynthesis is greatest under high light intensity at 35°C. This can be seen from the graph, as the curve for high light intensity reaches its highest point at around 35°C. In contrast, the curve for low light intensity reaches its highest point at a lower temperature of around 25°C. Therefore, the correct answer is (D) high light intensity at 35°C.
Explanation:
Answer: Maximum photosynthesis occurs at 35 degrees Celsius in bright light. As the graph shows, the peak of the high-light intensity curve occurs around 35 degrees Celsius. In contrast, the peak of the low-light intensity curve occurs at a relatively mild 25 degrees Celsius. Therefore, (D) high light intensity at 35°C, is the correct answer.
Explanation:
complete the following sentence correctly. the membrane of a neuron contains many more __________ leak channels than __________ leak channels, and this causes the resting membrane potential to be somewhat near to the equilibrium potential for __________.
The plasma membrane of a neuron has more potassium(K+) leak channels than sodium(Na+) leak channels. Because of this, K+ ions that leave the cell is greater than the number of Na+ ions that enter the cell.
The neuron's plasma membrane is only minimally permeable to Cl and Na+ and extremely permeable to Potassium (K+). A balance between a high concentration of Na+ and a high concentration of Cl, as well as modest amounts of impermeant anions like bicarbonate, phosphate, and sulphate, is what keeps the extracellular fluid's electroneutrality. The concentration of Cl in the cytoplasm, where K+ concentration is high, is substantially lower than what is required to balance the sum of the positive charges. There, negatively charged impermeant proteins and phosphates keep the environment electroneutral.When the overall concentration of particles on one side is not equal to that on the other, the osmotic balance between the cytoplasm and extracellular fluid is kept by water moving through the plasma membrane.To know more about membrane check the below link:
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Select all functions performed by both the male and female reproductive system in humans.
a. produce gametes
b. produce sex hormones
Select all functions performed by both the male and female reproductive systems in humans are produce gametes and produce sex hormones.
The human reproductive system helps produce human offspring, with males providing sperm and females providing eggs. The functional difference between the two systems is that the female system is designed to nurture the baby until it is big enough to survive in this world, while the male system is the sperm delivery system.
While the entire female reproductive system is inside the body, much of the male reproductive system is outside the body. The vas deferens are not part of the female reproductive system because they are tubes that carry sperm. It belongs to the male reproductive system. The ovaries uterus and fallopian tubes are part of the human female reproductive system.
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both female and male reproductive systems are primarily nonfunctional until puberty.
Both female and male reproductive systems are primarily nonfunctional until puberty is a true statement
The reproductive organs grow very slowly during childhood and donot mature until the puberty.
Puberty is period during which humans become sexually mature.
Boys generally begin puberty at about age 12 and complete it at about age 18.
number of lifestyle factors affect fertility in women, in men:
These include but are not limited to nutrition, weight, and exercise; physical and psychological stress; environmental and occupational exposures; substance and drug use and medications.
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Both female and male reproductive systems are primarily nonfunctional until puberty.
a. True
b. False
Both female and male reproductive systems are primarily nonfunctional until puberty. True
The reproductive system of an organism, additionally known as the genital system, is the biological system made from all of the anatomical organs concerned in sexual replicas. Many non-dwelling substances along with fluids, hormones, and pheromones also are vital add-ons to the reproductive device.
A reproductive gadget is a group of organs and a community of hormone manufacturing in women and men that permit a man to impregnate a woman who gives beginning to a baby.
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every dolphin has a fin. every dolphin is an animal. what kind of relationship would best describe the first and second statements?
The two assertions are related in the following way: Every dolphin is an animal, and every dolphin has a fin. Aggregation : Inheritance
Typically, the dolphin's body contains five fins (some dolphins have only a small dorsal ridge while others, such as the "killer whale" have a very large dorsal fin). The dorsal fin, which is found on the animal's top (dorsal side), is loaded with fibrous connective tissue. It avoids "roll" and serves to keep the animal upright (much like a ship's keel). Additionally, it has a function for thermoregulation, which regulates body temperature. The dolphin must keep its body temperature between 97 and 99 degrees Fahrenheit since it has warm blood. The dorsal fin is used to expel extra body heat to the environment if the animal becomes overheated.
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a number of monozygotic twin pairs in the population are discordant in their number of tails (meaning that one twin in the pair has one tail, while the other has two pairs). what can you conclude about heritability of the number of tails?
There are many monozygotic twin pairs in the population that have different numbers of tails (meaning that one twin in the pair has one tail, while the other has two pairs). The number of tails has a lower heritability than 1.
In the domains of breeding and genetics, the term "heritability" refers to a statistic that quantifies how much genetic variation across individuals in a population contributes to variance in phenotypic traits within that population. The phrase "what is the proportion of the variation in a given trait within a population that is not explained by the environment or random chance?" can be used to describe heritability. Other environmental factors, such as observational error, are what create measured variance in a trait. These are sometimes divided into "shared environment" and "non-shared environment" factors in human heredity studies, depending on whether they tend to make people who share a household more or less similar to others who did not.
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The nucleus and mitochondria share which of the following features? a. protein-lined membrane pores b. a double cell membrane c. the synthesis of ribosomes d. the production of cellular energy
The mitochondria and nucleus both exhibit features of a double-cell membrane. The right response in this case is option B.
The nuclear envelope, a double membrane with nuclear pores that encloses the nucleus, is present. Within a cell, aerobic respiration takes place in the mitochondria. They are encircled by a double membrane, the inner membrane of which is folded into cristae, or projections that resemble fingers.
The nuclear membrane, which is made up of two layers, surrounds the cell's nucleus, which contains the chromosomes. The nuclear membrane separates the chromosomes from the cytoplasm and other parts of the cell.
Because water and other polar or charged molecules find it difficult to get through the hydrophobic core of the membrane, the phospholipid bilayer that results from these interactions serves as an effective barrier between the inside and exterior of the cell.
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glycogen synthase catalyzes glycogen synthesis. determine whether each of the following are associated with an increase or decrease in glycogen synthase activity.
1) activation of phosphoprotein phosphatase PP1
2) Phosphorylation (inactivation) of phosphoprotein phosphatase 1 (PP1) by PKA
3) Subunit dissociation of cAMP-dependent protein kinase (PKA)
4) Phosphorylation of glycogen synthase
5) Insulin
6) Phosphorylation of glycogen synthase kinase (GSK, or GSK3)
a. Increased glycogen synthase activity:
b. Decreased glycogen synthase activity:
At some point, the activity of glycogen synthase increases or decreases increased activity of glycogen synthase. Glycogen synthase kinase phosphorylation (GSK, or GSK3).
Phosphoprotein phosphatase PP1 activation. Insulin Glycogen synthase activity is decreased: Glycogen synthase phosphorylation. PKA phosphorylates (deactivates) the enzyme phosphoprotein phosphatase 1 (PP1). Dissociation of the cAMP-dependent protein kinase's subunit (PKA).Since glucagon and insulin are counter-regulatory hormones, their effects on the degree of glycogen synthase phosphorylation are diametrically opposed. A rise in cAMP and a parallel rise in PKA activity occur as a result of glucagon binding to hepatocyte receptors.At least four distinct locations of glycogen synthase are phosphorylated as a result of PKA. Additionally, PKA activity causes phosphorylase kinase activity on the glycogen synthase to rise at a position where PKA phosphorylates. The activity of cAMP phosphodiesterase, which hydrolyzes AMP and lowers the level of active PKA, is increased by insulin in PKA.Additionally, insulin inhibits GSK-3 action by reducing the amount of kinase-mediated phosphorylation of glycogen synthase.
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Cavities in bone tissue where osteocytes are found are called:
a. Central Canals
b. Lamellae
c. Lacunae
d. Trabecular
e. Volkmann's Canals
Lacunae are osteocyte-containing cavities in bone tissue. Here option C is the correct answer.
Bone cells can be seen in areas called lacunae. A lacuna in bone or cartilage serves primarily as a home for the cells it contains, preserving their viability and functionality. Osteocytes are enclosed by lacunae in bones, while chondrocytes are enclosed by lacunae in cartilage.
A bone or cartilage lacuna's main job is to keep the cells it contains alive and functioning by acting as a home for them. Small, spindle-shaped gaps called "bone lacunae" are formed when osteoblasts leave behind an osteocyte during the remodeling process.
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Which term is used to describe the continued divergence of species based on the low fitness of hybrid offspring?
a. reinforcement
b. fusion
c. stability
d. punctuated equilibrium
Reinforcement is the term that describes the continued divergence of species based on the low fitness of hybrid offspring.
Reinforcement is the process of speciation. Here, natural selection results in the reproductive isolation of the two population of species. This isolation can be complete or incomplete. If incomplete, mating can occurs between the two populations and the resultant hybrid has low fitness.
Divergence refers to the separation of two populations of homologous nature due to some reason like speciation, migration, etc. to form different species. These different species although have a common ancestor. Such species have same anatomical structures but perform different function due to adaptations.
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Which cells will most likely display mutations that could potentially result in cancer?
Cells with mutation and expressed with p53 or Tp53 are potentially more likely to result in cancer.
The p53 or TP53 gene is the one that is most frequently altered in cancer patients. Over 50% of tumors have a defective or absent p53 gene. Most mutations in the p53 gene are acquired.
Although germline p53 mutations are uncommon, those who have them have an increased chance of developing a wide range of cancers.
The majority of cancer cells, known as carcinomas, originate from tissues that line the inner or outer surfaces of the body and are called epithelial in origin. Leukemia typically develops in the bone marrow, which is responsible for creating new blood cells. Myeloma and lymphoma are immune system-related cancers.
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HELP ASAP. Which statements explain how scientists can use the similarities between current species and extinct organisms?
(Select all that apply.)
Scientists can research which animals survived certain conditions and then modify existing animals.
O Scientists can build lineage maps and determine which species come from extinct species.
O Scientists can build lineage maps that show which animals ate which plants.
Scientists can research why the extinct species died out and also learn about the conditions on Earth at the time.
Answer:i believe the answer is B
how animal and plant cells behave when put in solutions that are hypotonic or hypertonic to the cell
Cells positioned in a hypotonic solution will absorb water throughout their membrane till each the outside answer and the cytosol are isotonic.
A cell that doesn't have a inflexible cell wall, inclusive of a purple blood mobileular, will swell and lyse (burst) whilst positioned in a hypotonic solution animal and plant cells are saved in a hypotonic solution then endosmosis will occur.
If a cell is positioned in a hypertonic solution, water will go away the mobileular, and the cell will shrink. In an isotonic environment, there may be water movement, so there may be no extrade withinside the length of the mobileular. When a cell is positioned in a hypotonic environment, water will input the mobileular, and the cell will swell.
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For what reason might the ID50 for Salmonella Typhi decrease when a rat simultaneously ingests sulfa drugs with the pathogen? The antimicrobial inactivates stomach acid and allows the pathogen to more readily pass to the intestine, O Salmonella Typhi becomes stronger in the presence of sulfa drugs The antimicrobial interferes with the microbiome enabling the pathogen to more easily establish infection There would not be an effect on the ID50 It would not the 1050 goes up
The antimicrobial interferes with the microbiome enabling the pathogen to more easily establish infection. This is the reason might the ID50 for Salmonella Typhi decrease when a rat simultaneously ingests sulfa drugs with the pathogen.
A gram-negative bacterium called Salmonella enterica typhi causes typhoid fever and has plagued developing countries for many years. Typhoid fever continues to be a significant global public health issue despite tremendous research and treatment improvements. The genesis, pathophysiology, presentation, and diagnosis of Salmonella typhi are covered in this exercise, which also emphasizes the management of the disease by the interprofessional team.
A gram-negative bacterium called Salmonella enterica serotype typhi causes typhoid fever and has plagued developing countries for many years. Pierre Louis, who had discovered lesions in the abdominal lymph nodes of patients who had passed away from "gastric fever," was the first to use the term "typhoid fever" in 1829. The word "delirium" is a translation of the Greek word "typhus," which meant "smoky" and was used to characterize the delirium that typhus victims would experience.
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The body needs fat for __________. A. Strengthening bonesb. Building musclesc. Maintaining weightd. Transport of vitamins.
Answer: D.) Transport of vitamins
Explanation: Fat is a source of essential fatty acids, which the body cannot make itself. Fat helps the body absorb vitamin A, vitamin D and vitamin E. These vitamins are fat-soluble, which means they can only be absorbed with the help of fats.
The transduction of sound waves into action potentials by the human ear takes place ________.
Hair cells are responsible for the human ear's conversion of sound waves in action potentials.
What does biology's basic transduction entail?DNA is transferred from one bacteria to another by the virus through a process known as transduction. The technique of introducing foreign DNA into a different cell via a retrovirus is also referred to as this.
What do translation and transduction mean?A bacterium transforms by consuming a fragment of DNA that is floating around in its environment. A virus unintentionally transfers DNA from one bacterium to another is unintentionally transferred from one bacterium to another by a virus during transduction. DNA is transmitted between bacteria during conjugation through a tube that connects the cells.
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hich of the following is the most precise description of the role of enzymes in catalyzing biochemical reactions? Enzymes provide a stable location for a reaction to occur, but do not participate directly in the reaction itself. Enzymes decrease the activation energy of a reaction by stabilizing the transition state. Enzymes increase the activation energy of the reactants, making a reaction more exergonic. Enzymes decrease the AG of the reactions, making them proceed rapidly.
Enzymes decrease the activation energy of a reaction by stabilizing the transition state is the most precise description of the role of enzymes in catalyzing biochemical reactions.
What is a enzyme in a biochemical reaction?
Biological catalysts, also referred to as biocatalysts, such as enzymes, quicken biochemical reactions in living things. They can also be taken out of cells and employed to catalyze a variety of crucial economic processes. They are utilized in washing powders and other cleaning products, for instance, and they play a crucial part in analytical devices and assays that have applications in clinical, forensic, and environmental settings. They also play significant roles in the production of sweetening agents and the modification of antibiotics.
Perhaps the easiest way to describe the immense catalytic activity of enzymes is to use the constant kcat, also known as the turnover rate, turnover frequency, or turnover number.
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Which of the statements most accurately describes the benefits of the proofreading function of DNA polymerase?
a. DNA polymerase is always present in the nucleus and can repair all mutations when they occur.
b. All DNA mutations can be detected and repaired during DNA replication.
c. DNA polymerase can repair most mutations as they occur during DNA replication.
d. DNA polymerase can be recruited to recently mutated sites to repair mutations.
Statement c is the most accurate description of the benefits of proofreading by DNA polymerase.
A DNA polymerase belongs to a family of enzymes that facilitates the synthesis of DNA molecules from nucleoside triphosphates. This enzyme adds nucleotides to a DNA strand's three prime (3')-end position.
During replication, this enzyme connects nucleotides to create a new DNA strand. It also proofreads the new DNA strand and checks for any error or mutation. If detected, this helps to repair that error.
They can correct most of the mutations. But some mutations can escape and survive them. Therefore, not all mutations can be repaired by this enzyme.
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with the identification of skin stem cells, it has become possible to add the normal copy of a mutated gene into skin stem cells in vitro, grow the skin, and then transplant onto the patient. this approach was used to successfully treat a patient with a different form of epidermolysis bullosa known as junctional epidermolysis bullosa. (see nature 2017 nov 16;551(7680):327-332 ). what gene would need to be introduced into the skin stem cells of a patient with epidermolysis bullosa simplex in order to regain proper epithelial function?
To restore normal epithelial function in a patient with epidermolysis bullosa simplex, dominant keratin mutations gene would need to be inserted into the skin stem cells.
How is keratin affected by epidermolysis bullosa?In EBS, the basal layer of epidermal keratinocytes experiences trauma-induced loss of tissue integrity (Figure 2A; Figure 3). Basal keratinocytes "rupture" when the epidermis (and, in certain cases, other stratified epithelia) is subjected to mechanical damage because of the genetic flaw that renders them brittle.
In what genes does epidermolysis bullosa affect?Causes. Epidermolysis bullosa simplex can be caused by mutations in the KRT5 or KRT14 genes, which correspond to the four main kinds. These genes give instructions on how to produce the keratin 5 and keratin 14 proteins.
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if a foreign gene is cloned into an expression host, it is important that the host itself:_____.
If a foreign gene is cloned into an expression host, it is important that the host itself not produce the protein being studied.
The expression of genetic information includes (1) DNA transcription, (2) RNA processing, (3) RNA translation, and (4) protein processing. The correct execution of each of these steps is dependent on the host cell correctly interpreting the various signals carried by implicated macromolecules.
It is divided into two major stages: transcription and translation. Gene expression is the combination of transcription and translation. The information stored in a gene's DNA is transferred to a similar molecule called RNA (ribonucleic acid) in the cell nucleus during the transcription process. Numerous factors influence gene expression, including molecules within the cell, mutations that cause dominant negative effects and haploinsufficiency, signaling molecules from neighboring cells and the environment, and epistasis.
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Which type of ion channel opens and closes in response to changes in the membrane potential?
Answer:
Voltage Gated Channels
Explanation: