Z51.11, T86.49, C80.2 and C22.0 codes are assigned.
T86.49 should be assigned for liver transplant complications, along with C80.2 for malignancy associated with organ transplant. A transplant complication should be coded as a malignant neoplasm of a transplanted organ (CMS 2018a, Section I.C.2.r., 34).
The most common type of primary liver cancer is hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC). Hepatocellular carcinoma is most common in people who have chronic liver diseases, such as cirrhosis caused by hepatitis B or hepatitis C.
When a tumor grows on the liver, it is called hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC). It is responsible for over 12,000 deaths in the United States each year, making it one of the deadliest cancers in adults.
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which factor would the nurse explain as the likely cause of pain to a client who is diagnosed as having a herniated pulposus
Compression of the spinal cord by the extruded nucleus pulposus.
Herniated nucleus pulposus is a condition in which the soft, gelatinous central portion of an intervertebral disk is forced through a weakened section of the disk, causing back pain and nerve root irritation.
Complications associated with nucleus pulposus herniation can result from the compression effect on the nerve root in severe cases, resulting in motor deficit; there is also a risk of spinal cord compression in the cervical and thoracic spine in severe cases.
The annulus fibrous breaks open or cracks, allowing the nucleus pulposus to escape, resulting in disc herniation. This is known as a herniated nucleus pulposus or herniated disc, though it has also been referred to as a ruptured disc or a bulging disc.
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which are risk factors for type-2 diabetes that a nurse should recognize in a client? select all that apply:
History of gestational diabetes, obesity and impaired glucose tolerance are risk factors for type-2 diabetes that a nurse should recognize in a client.
Type 2 diabetes occurs when your body fails to properly utilize insulin. While some people can manage their blood glucose (blood sugar) levels through healthy eating and exercise, others may require medication or insulin.
Obesity is a major risk factor for type 2 diabetes. This is due to the fact that the more fatty tissue you have, the more insulin resistant your cells become. If your body stores fat primarily in your abdomen, you are more likely to develop type 2 diabetes than if your body stores fat elsewhere.
The primary distinction between type 1 and type 2 diabetes is that type 1 is a genetic condition that often manifests early in life, whereas type 2 is primarily lifestyle-related and develops over time. When you have type 1 diabetes, your immune system attacks and destroys insulin-producing cells in your pancreas.
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36. what type of living facility for older adults has separate apartments for each person, but residents are provided with meals in a common dining area and are offered housekeeping services, transportation for shopping and medical appointments, and access to social activities? a.assisted living b.nursing homes c.geriatric hospitals d.hospice
a. assisted living. Board and care homes, assisted living facilities, nursing homes, and continuing care retirement communities are examples of facilities based long term care services.
People who need help with daily care but not as much help as a nursing home provides may want to think about assisted living. A living facility for assisted living may have anywhere from 25 and 120 residents. Only a few "levels of care" are normally offered, with greater levels of care costing residents more. Common spaces are shared by residents of assisted living homes who normally have their own apartments or rooms. Numerous services are offered to them, including up to three meals per day, support with personal care, assistance with medicine, assistance with housekeeping and laundry, round-the-clock monitoring, security, on-site staff, as well as social and recreational activities. Each state has its own specifics. While many institutions additionally offer personal care and medical services, some merely offer lodging and housekeeping.
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the nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has received a prescription for lorazepam after the death of a loved one. which phase of psychopharmacologic treatment does this describe?
Stabilization phase of psychopharmacologic treatment is instructed to the client who has received a prescription for lorazepam after the death of a loved one.
The use of medications to treat mental health concerns is referred to as psychopharmacologic treatment. Most mental health disorders can be helped by medications. While some patients receive only medical care, others also receive therapy or other forms of treatment. Most schizophrenia patients can have their psychotic symptoms reduced with psychopharmacological therapy, while 20% of patients continue to experience FTD and are resistant to the antipsychotic effects of neuroleptic therapy.
The complete question is:
The nurse is providing discharge instructions for a client who has received a prescription for lorazepam after the death of a loved one. which phase of psychopharmacologic treatment does this describe?
A. Initiation
B. Maintenance
C. Stabilization
D. Diagnosis
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a child is born to a mother whose hepatitis b status is negative. while assessing the newborn, the nurse finds that the birth weight is 1.8 kg. which action is appropriate in this situation?
Administer HepB vaccine to the newborn 1 month after birth.a child is born to a mother whose hepatitis b status is negative. while assessing the newborn, the nurse finds that the birth weight is 1.8 kg.
In neonates weighing less than 2 kg, the immunological response to the HepB immunisation is not optimal. Given that the mother is negative for hepatitis B, the first dose of the HepB vaccination should be given one month after delivery. Since the mother's hepatitis B status is negative, there is no need to deliver 0.5 mL of hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) within 12 hours after birth. Infants with birth weights more than 2 kg get the monovalent HepB vaccination at the time of discharge. Within 12 hours of delivery, the newborn would get the HepB vaccination and 0.5 mL of hepatitis B immune globulin (HBIG) if the mother had the disease.
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a nurse is preparing to administer insulin glargine to a client. what precaution should the nurse take when administering this drug?
Avoid mixing glargine with other insulin.
Insulin glargine, also known as Lantus, is a long-acting modified form of medical insulin used in the treatment of type I and type II diabetes. In the United Kingdom, it is the most commonly prescribed long-acting insulin. It is administered once daily as an injection just beneath the skin.
Insulin glargine is a synthetic, long-acting version of human insulin. Insulin glargine products work by replacing insulin that the body normally produces and by assisting in the movement of sugar from the blood into other body tissues where it is used for energy. It also prevents the liver from producing additional sugar.
Insulin glargine is less soluble at physiological pH and crystallizes at the injection site, resulting in a longer delay in absorption and a longer duration of action, with a much lower peak plasma concentration compared to conventional, long-acting preparations.
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the amount of time a client spends in psychotherapy is determined by the client’s needs as well as his or her ________.
The amount of time a client spends in psychotherapy is determined by the client’s needs as well as his or her personal goals.
What is psychotherapy?It is a psychological treatment in which you speak with a mental health professional, such as a psychologist or psychiatrist, in which you learn about the disease or the feelings and emotions that the patient has. Through therapy, you will be given tools to be in control of your life and have strategies to face demanding situations.
Psychotherapy is not always related to the management of mental illnesses, also to be able to handle certain stressful situations such as resolving conflicts, controlling unhealthy reactions, facing important changes in life, among other situations.
Psychotherapy can be effective on its own or must be reinforced with medication, this depends on the situation or illness of each patient. Every situation is different.
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which type of psychotropic drug works by increasing the availability of neurotransmitters by inhibiting enzymes that break down the drug in the synapse?
Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) work by increasing the availability of neurotransmitters by inhibiting enzymes that break down the drug in the synapse.
The Effects of Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors on Neurotransmitter AvailabilityMonoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) are a type of psychotropic drug that work by increasing the availability of neurotransmitters in the brain. Neurotransmitters are important chemical messengers that help regulate mood, emotion, and behavior. MAOIs work by inhibiting enzymes known as monoamine oxidases, which are responsible for breaking down neurotransmitters in the synapse.
By blocking these enzymes, MAOIs keep neurotransmitters active for longer periods of time, resulting in increased availability of the neurotransmitters in the brain. This can have a beneficial effect on mood and behavior, as it allows the neurotransmitters to have more of an impact on the brain. MAOIs are typically used to treat depression and anxiety disorders, although they may be used to treat other mental health conditions as well.
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is it true or false that the generally-recognized-as-safe rule means that the fda sees a foreseeable threat from human use of the product?
The generally recognized as safe rule means that the FDA sees a foreseeable threat from human use of the product. This statement is False.
The Food and Drug Administration of the United States is a federal agency of the Department of Health and Human Services. FDA approval of a drug means that CDER has reviewed data on the drug's effects and determined that the benefits outweigh the known and potential risks for the intended population.
The FDA is in charge of protecting and promoting public health by regulating and supervising food safety, tobacco products, caffeine products, dietary supplements, prescription and over-the-counter pharmaceutical drugs (medications), vaccines, biopharmaceuticals, blood transfusions, medical devices, electromagnetic radiation emitting devices (ERED), cosmetics, animal foods and feed, and veterinary products.
The FDA's primary responsibility is to enforce the Federal Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act (FD&C), but the agency also enforces other laws, most notably Section 361 of the Public Health Service Act, as well as associated regulations.
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psychoanalysts using the technique of association tell patients to say aloud whatever comes to mind, regardless of its apparent irrelevance or senselessness. t or f
Psychoanalysts that employ the free association technique instruct patients to speak out loud everything that comes to mind, regardless of its apparent meaninglessness or irrelevance.
What is a psychoanalytic technique when the client just speaks whatever comes to mind?Free association is a practice where consumers are urged to speak their minds without any restraints. 3 This enables the therapist to comprehend the client's ideas and feelings more fully.A technique used in psychoanalytic treatment is free association. In this technique, a therapist invites a client to freely express whatever words, ideas, or other information that comes to mind. Coherence of thought is not required. But if they are genuine, it might be helpful.freely sociable A technique used in psychoanalysis to explore the unconscious in which the subject is encouraged to speak anything comes to mind, regardless of how unimportant or embarrassing it may be.A type of talk therapy based on Sigmund Freud's theories of psychoanalysis is known as psychoanalytic therapy. The method investigates how the unconscious mind affects your perceptions, emotions, and actions.To learn more about Free association refer to:
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is a 10-year-old girl who has become very overweight during the past two years at risk for developing chronic diseases?
She is at risk of developing type 2 diabetes because of weight gain.
Chronic diseases are defined broadly as conditions that last a year or more and necessitate ongoing medical attention, limit daily activities, or both. In the United States, chronic diseases such as heart disease, cancer, and diabetes are the leading causes of death and disability.
Cancer, heart disease, stroke, diabetes, and arthritis are the most common types of chronic disease. Chronic conditions are distinguished from acute conditions in medicine. Acute conditions typically affect only one part of the body and are treatable. A chronic condition, on the other hand, usually affects multiple areas of the body, is not completely responsive to treatment, and lasts a long time.
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natalie is in the end stages of lung cancer and is hooked up to a ventilator. she has recently suffered a stroke and slipped into a coma. natalie's physician informs her family that there is nothing more that can be done since natalie is now in brainstem death and should be disconnected from the ventilator. her family wants to be absolutely sure her prognosis is as poor as the doctor stated. which final test can confirm this diagnosis?
The apnea test is typically the last step in determining brain death in ventilator. It is carried out after it has been determined that the coma is irreversible, unresponsive, and that brainstem reflexes are absent.
The apnea test, which offers a crucial indicator of the final loss of brainstem function, is a requirement for determining brain death(BD). Removing the patient's breathing apparatus
High [tex]PaO_{2}[/tex] levels can be maintained for extremely long periods of time with continuous or intermittent oxygen supplementation in ventilator that is preceded by de-nitrogenation of blood gases. Preoxygenation improves oxygen delivery by removing alveolar nitrogen reserves. There are various methods for determining whether there is adequate oxygenation during AT. First, the respirator is removed from the patient, and then a catheter or cannula is inserted into the endotracheal tube, down to the level of the carina, and pure oxygen is administered at a rate of 4–10 l/min. Even without breathing, this would guarantee enough alveolar ventilation and oxygen delivery to the blood.
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a nurse is preparing an in-service presentation for a group of staff members on diabetes. which would the nurse include as the primary delivery system for insulin?
A nurse is preparing an in-service presentation for a group of staff members on diabetes. The nurse include as the primary delivery system for insulin is subcutaneous injection.
Subcutaneous is the latin word for skin. The tissue layer between the skin and the muscle is the target of this kind of injection, which uses a small needle. When administered in this method, medication is often absorbed over a longer length of time than when it is injected into a vein, sometimes up to 24 hours.
Between your thumb and index finger, pinch a 2-inch-long flap of skin. Similar to how you would hold a pencil or dart, hold the syringe. To the skin that has been squeezed up, insert the needle at a 45- to 90-degree angle. The skin should fully enclose the needle.
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The ______ approach to therapy involves treatments that address symptoms of psychological disorders by altering aspects of bodily functioning.
The biological approach to therapy involves treatments that address symptoms of psychological disorders by altering aspects of bodily functioning.
The study of the biology of behavior, also known as physiological psychology or biological psychology, is centered on the nervous system, hormones, and genetics. Biology-based psychology investigates brain processes, the interplay between the mind and body, and the genetic component of behavior.
The biological approach holds that our genetics and physiology influence our behavior. It is the only method of psychology that considers biological, or physical, factors when analyzing ideas, feelings, and behaviors.
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a qualified ehr is an electronic record of healthcare-related information on a patient that includes all pertinent components of a medical record, such as:
A qualified EHR is an electronic record of healthcare-related information on a patient that includes all pertinent components of a medical record, such as laboratories, specialists, medical imaging facilities, pharmacies, emergency facilities, and school and workplace clinics – so they contain information from all clinicians involved in a patient’s care.
An electronic health record is a systematized collection of patient and population health information that is electronically stored in digital format. These records can be shared among various health-care settings. EHRs are an important component of health information technology because they can store a patient's medical history, diagnoses, medications, treatment plans, immunization dates, allergies, radiology images, and laboratory and test results. Allow providers to use evidence-based tools to make decisions about a patient's care.
Making prescribing safer and more reliable. Assisting in the promotion of legible, complete documentation as well as accurate, streamlined coding and billing. Improving patient data privacy and security. Assisting providers in improving their productivity and work-life balance.
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if you have moved to a new town and want to find a provider you can see for annual wellness exams and the treatment of routine ailments, you are seeking a(n)
If you have relocated to a new location and want to discover a physician you can see for annual wellness examinations and the treatment of typical diseases, you are seeking a primary care practitioner.
A primary care practitioner is a specialist in family medicine, general internal medicine, or general pediatrics who provides comprehensive care to the unexamined patient at the time of initial contact and constantly takes charge of the patient's total care.
A nurse practitioner is typically only described as an expert in advanced practice. A registered nurse with a license to practice without a physician is known as a nurse.
Health experts and various related health areas provide healthcare. The discipline of health care encompasses all occupations related to medicine, such as dentistry, pharmacy, maternity, nursing, optometry, audiology, psychology, occupational therapists, physical therapy, and athletic training.
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a client with type 1 diabetes is on insulin. during gym class, the client experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion for the first time. what is the most probable cause of these symptoms?
A client with Low blood sugar, sometimes referred to as hypoglycemia, occurs when your blood sugar level falls to 70 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L) or below.
After exercise, blood sugar often continues to decline for several hours. Even when performing home or yard chores, it's crucial to match client insulin dosages with the meals you consume and the activities you engage in if you have type 1 diabetes. You can prevent my blood sugar from becoming too low or excessively high by making a plan and understanding how your body and blood sugar react to activity. After exercise, blood sugar often continues to decline for several hours. Low blood sugar, sometimes referred to as hypoglycemia, occurs when your blood sugar level falls to 70 mg/dL (3.9 mmol/L) or below. Fast-acting carbohydrates may usually be consumed or drank to cure hypoglycemia.
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which meal, if eaten by a client recently prescribed orlistat, would be most likely to exacerbate the adverse effects of the medication?
A salami, sausage, and pepperoni pizza topped with mozzarella and parmesan if eaten by a client recently prescribed orlistat, would be most likely to exacerbate the adverse effects of the medication.
Orlistat, also known by the brand name Xenical, is a medication used to treat obesity. Its primary function is to prevent fat absorption from the human diet by acting as a lipase inhibitor, thereby lowering caloric intake.
Orlistat helps you lose weight by reducing the amount of dietary fat absorbed in your intestines. Lipase, a digestive enzyme, aids in the breakdown of dietary fat into smaller pieces so that it can be used or stored for energy.
This medication may increase your chances of developing kidney stones. If you or your child has blood in the urine, nausea and vomiting, pain in the groin or genitals, or sharp back pain just below the ribs, see your doctor right away. Weight loss with this medication may increase your chances of developing gallstones.
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a client is taking lithium has slurred speech, an ataxic gait, and nausea. which statemtn about these signs and symptoms is correct
The classic signs and symptoms of lithium toxicity include slurred speech, ataxia, nausea, and vomiting.
Lithium toxicity symptoms are obvious and can be easily identified and managed; however, ignoring them can be fatal. Indeed, lithium toxicity can cause coma, brain damage, and even death in some cases. Furthermore, lithium has the potential to cause serotonin syndrome, a potentially fatal and life-threatening condition.
Severe nausea and vomiting, severe hand tremors, confusion, and vision changes are all symptoms of lithium toxicity. If you experience any of these symptoms, you should seek immediate medical attention to have your lithium levels checked.
The mainstay of lithium toxicity treatment is supportive therapy. Because of emesis and the risk of aspiration, airway protection is critical. Controlling seizures with benzodiazepines, phenobarbital, or propofol is possible.
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a facility that provides assistance with personal care such as help with medication, housekeeping, laundry service, and meals but does not provide major medical care is called
A facility that provides assistance with personal care such as help with medication, housekeeping, laundry service, and meals but does not provide major medical care is called assisted-living facility.
A housing facility for people with impairments or for adults who are unable to live independently or who prefer not to does so is known as an assisted living house or assisted living facility (ALF). The term is well-known in the United States, but the environment is comparable to a retirement home in that facilities offer a community living setting and frequently serve an older adult population. Additionally, there is Caribbean assisted living, which provides a comparable service in a setting akin to a resort.
Hence, assisted living care is services provided to old and disable person.
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a client with severe chronic pain is to receive an opioid analgesic agent. the nurse will monitor the client for signs of tolerancen which can develop at different rates related to which factors?
A client with severe chronic pain is to receive an opioid analgesic agent. the nurse will monitor the client for signs of tolerancen which can develop at different rates related to chronic pain factor.
Analgesic are medications that are used to treat pain. Unlike the medications used as anesthetics during surgery, analgesics do not cut off nerves, impede your capacity to sense your surroundings, or influence consciousness. Sometimes, they are referred to as painkillers or pain relievers. In order to relieve pain and swelling, analgesics are recommended. For illustration: After undergoing surgery for an accident, such as a bone fracture. For acute (sudden, transient) pain, including headaches and sprained ankles. for aches and pains, such as menstrual cramps or tight muscles. For conditions that cause chronic pain, such as back pain, arthritis, or cancer. The two primary types of analgesics are opioids and anti-inflammatory analgesics. Anti-inflammatory drugs work by reducing edema and inflammation at the site of the discomfort. Examples include: Acetaminophen, Aspirin, COX inhibitors. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs), which include ibuprofen and naproxen, treat inflammation. The way the brain interprets pain is altered by narcotics, also referred to as analgesic opioids. Opioids can be found in both synthetic and natural substances. There are several more modern, unrelated opioids that have been produced in laboratories, although many are morphine-like.
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when giving intravenous quinolones, the nurse needs to keep in mind that these drugs may have serious interactions with which drugs?
When giving intravenous quinolones, the nurse needs to keep in mind that these drugs may have serious interactions with Oral anticoagulants drugs
When treating nosocomial infections, clinicians must pick among a class of antibacterial medicines known as intravenous fluoroquinolones. Fluoroquinolones are antibacterial medicines that work by blocking DNA gyrase.
They are typically taken orally, although some can be given intravenously to treat severe infections. Quinolones are bactericidal and kill in a concentration-dependent manner.
Oral anticoagulants, also known as vitamin K antagonists (VKAs), are medications used to prevent or enhance the incidence of undesirable blood clots. They work by inhibiting the enzymes vitamin K epoxide reductase and vitamin K reductase. These enzymes are needed for the chemical reduction of oxidized vitamin K.
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total saturated fat for this meal is 95 grams. based on the 2020 dietary guidelines, what percent of the daily value for saturated fat does this provide?
The total saturated fat for this meal is 95 grams. based on the 2020 dietary guidelines, 20% of the daily value of saturated fat does this provide.
They are a particular class of fat distinguished by their chemical makeup and molecular connections. These qualities make this fat relatively unsuitable for eating. All diets should limit the consumption of these fats to 10% of the total calorie intake at the most. A diet devoid of these fats is in no way hazardous. Bad cholesterol is produced by this kind of fat, which can result in numerous health problems.
Since the required daily maximum for saturated fats is 20 grams, we can thus establish that based on a 2,000-calorie diet, the daily value for saturated fats provided by the Day 1 meal would be 20%.
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prevention efforts that are aimed at a specific subgroup of the population considered at-risk for developing mental health problems are called __________ interventions.
Prevention efforts that are aimed at a specific subgroup of the population considered at risk for developing mental health problems are called selective interventions.
Selective treatments concentrate on biological, psychological, or social risk factors that are more common in high-risk groups than in the overall population. Examples include preemptive education for immigrant families with small children or peer support groups for people with a family history of substance use issues. Not every person or population is equally susceptible to behavioral health problems.
The most effective prevention programs are those that are tailored to the level of risk that their target population faces. Preventive interventions can be grouped into three main types.
1. Universal preventive interventions,
2. Selective interventions,
3. Indicated preventive interventions
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a client has developed osteomyelitis and asks the health care provider how the problem occurred. which response is most accurate?
Direct contamination of an open wound is the most accurate response.
Osteomyelitis is a bone infection. Infections can enter the bone via the bloodstream or spread from nearby tissue. Infections can also start in the bone itself if the bone is injured and exposed to germs.
The most common treatments for osteomyelitis are surgery to remove infected or dead bone fragments, followed by hospital-based intravenous antibiotics. Osteomyelitis is a serious condition that necessitates immediate medical attention. Antibiotics cure the majority of bone infections. Even if you begin to feel better, continue to take all of your prescribed medications.
The majority of cases of osteomyelitis are caused by staphylococcus bacteria, which are types of germs that are commonly found on the skin or in the noses of even healthy people. Germs can enter a bone through a number of routes, including the bloodstream.
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a client tests positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (hiv) antibody but has no symptoms. this client is considered a carrier. what component of the infection cycle does the client illustrate?
A client tests positive for the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) antibody but has no symptoms. This client is considered a carrier. The component of the infection cycle the client illustrate is a reservoir.
The group of immune system cells in the body that are human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infected but are not actively generating new virus is known as a latent human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) reservoir. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) assaults the body's immune system cells and uses the cells' internal machinery to replicate. However, some immune cells that are HIV-positive enter a dormant or latent state. The infected cells do not create new viruses while they are in this dormant state. These cells can harbor HIV for many years, creating a latent HIV reservoir, but at any point, cells in the reservoir can become active once more and begin producing new virus.
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which skin disorder is characterized by a vesicular eruption after prolonged exposure to perspiration, with subsequent obstruction of the eccrine ducts? a. scabies b. tinea corporis c. miliaria d. pediculosis
The skin disorder Miliaria is characterized by a vesicular eruption after prolonged exposure to perspiration, with subsequent obstruction of the eccrine ducts.
The most common clinical form of milia, a common dermatosis caused by sweat retention and characteristic eruption of vesicles secondary to prolonged exposure to sweat, with subsequent maceration and obstruction of the eccrine ducts. Red miliary lesions are predicted for covered areas of the skin, are characterized by pruritic little papules, vesicles or papulovesicles surrounded by erythema and are always extrafollicular.
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what is the primary goal to lose weight in a healthy way? a. lose weight as fast as possible to experience early success when dieting b. understand that excess protein in the diet is stored as amino acids c. recognize that excess stored protein can later be retrieved and converted back to protein d. lose muscle, fat, and water proportionately e. preserve lean tissue and lose body fat
Answer: e. preserve lean tissue and lose body fat
which intervention would the nurse expect to perform as the initual step in the medical mangement of severe pancreatitis
Giving IV fluids at 250 mL/hr.
The second priority of this medical management is to control the patient's pain. Although NPO status helps to reduce pancreatic secretions, it is not the primary intervention. The first step in medical management is to stabilize the patient's hemodynamic status by administering IV fluids. The patient may require surgery to address the underlying issue, but this is not the first step in treatment.
Pancreatitis is pancreatic inflammation. The pancreas is a long, flat gland located in the upper abdomen behind the stomach. The pancreas produces enzymes that aid digestion as well as hormones that regulate how your body processes sugar (glucose). It can be either sudden (acute) or ongoing (chronic). The most common causes are alcoholism and solid lumps (gallstones) in the gallbladder. The treatment goal is to rest the pancreas and allow it to heal.
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jackson and vivica, two teenagers, are not ready to take the risk of an unwanted pregnancy but have unprotected sex. as per vivica's calculations, she is ovulating. what should vivica do to prevent an unintended pregnancy?multiple choiceimmediately consume plan b one-step pillsuse a cervical cap along with an effective spermicideimplant essureimmediately insert the paragard iud herself
This pill is most effective at preventing pregnancy when it’s taken as quickly after unprotected sex as possible. Brand names include Plan B One-Step and ella.
What is the morning-after pill?
It is possible to utilize the morning after pill as an emergency contraceptive (birth control). Contraception used in an emergency is different from conventional birth control methods such as daily usage of birth control pills.
The morning-after pill is sold under numerous different brand names. Levonorgestrel is the only progestin in the morning-after pill (Plan B One-Step). This drug is sold without a prescription.
One pill emergency contraception is referred to as Plan B. Plan B should be taken as soon as possible after unprotected sex for the greatest outcomes, usually within the first three days. The medication's efficacy declines if used more than five days following unprotected sex.
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