The client who should be demonstrated first on telemetry unit is one who must be showing symptoms of Normal sinus rhythm and complaining of chest pain, which suggests that option B is the right answer.
Telemetry is the medical process in which automatic measurement and wireless transmission of data from remote sources to healthcare unit takes place due to which the data can be analyzed at some other place by expert doctors and the medication can be provided using telepathy. Normal sinus rhythm refers to the healthy beating of the heart which is characterized by a P wave that precedes every QRS complex, a QRS that precedes every T wave and T wave again end with P wave and so on. When irregularity is observed in heart rate, it causes arrhythmia.
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a pregnant woman is yawning excessively, is diaphoretic, and is experiencing nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis, and diarrhea. the nurse suspects that the woman may be withdrawing from which substance?
A pregnant woman is yawning excessively, is diaphoretic, and is experiencing nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis, and diarrhea. The nurse suspects that the woman may be withdrawing from Pica which is a eating disorder.
A person with a pica which is a eating disorder compulsively consumes items that aren't food and serve no nutritional or functional purpose. Pica can be natural, expected, and harmless depending on when and why a person does it. If a person with this illness eats something toxic or hazardous, it could lead to serious issues. With pica, a person eats compulsively things that aren't food and don't provide any nutrients. People who have this illness struggle mightily to suppress the impulse on their own since it is compulsive. Depending on the non-food item(s) a person consumes, pica can have a variety of impacts. Pica is a safe pregnancy-related activity for people who consume things like ice.
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mary takes her progestin-only contraceptive pill at 8:00 every morning, but today she did not remember to take it until 3:00 in the afternoon. what should she do?
Take a pill now, then take the next pill as scheduled, but use a backup method for 48 hours.
If a pill is missed by at least three hours and is a progestin-only contraceptive, the following should be done, according to the manufacturer.As soon as you realise you forgot to take a tablet, take it. Take your progestin-only contraception at your normal schedule after that.Oral contraceptives include the progestin-only birth control pill, sometimes referred to as the minipill (birth control pill). Only progestin is present in trace amounts in each progestin-only pill (which is a synthetic form of the hormone progesterone). There is no oestrogen in these pills. 1 The MiniPill is available only in 28-day packs.One type of birth control pill is a progestin-only contraceptive. The "mini-pill" is another name for it. Estrogen and progesterone are the two female hormones found in typical birth control pills. The only substance in the mini-pill is progesterone.To know more about Contraceptive check the below link:
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vitamin c is important for collagen synthesis. which area of the skin would be most affected if there is a deficiency in vitamin c?
Reticular layer of dermis would be most affected if there is a deficiency in vitamin C.
Vitamin C, also known as ascorbic acid and ascorbate, is a water-soluble vitamin found in citrus and other fruits and vegetables. It is also available as a dietary supplement and as a topical 'serum' ingredient to treat melasma (dark pigment spots) and facial wrinkles. It is used to treat and prevent scurvy. Vitamin C is an essential nutrient that aids in tissue repair, collagen formation, and the enzymatic production of certain neurotransmitters.
Fatigue, depression, and connective tissue defects are among the symptoms (eg, gingivitis, petechiae, rash, internal bleeding, impaired wound healing). Bone growth in infants and children may be hampered. Clinical diagnosis is usually used. The treatment consists of taking vitamin C orally.
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which statement best describes the difference between a healthy person and a person with type ii diabetes in their ability to maintain homeostasis of blood sugar levels?
The statement which best describes the difference between a healthy person and a person with type II diabetes is 4. Type II diabetics produce insulin when blood sugar levels increase.
The body's inability to regulate and use sugar (glucose) as fuel causes type 2 diabetes. Sugar levels in the blood are too high as a result of this chronic condition, which lasts for a long time. High blood sugar levels can eventually result in circulatory, nervous, and immune system disorders. Because receptor cells develop insulin resistance in this type of diabetes, thus option 4 is the correct response. It is manageable through exercise and weight loss, but it cannot be completely cured.
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(Complete question)
Use the Homeostasis lab to answer the question. Which statement best describes the difference between a healthy person and a person with type II diabetes in their ability to maintain homeostasis of blood sugar levels?
A person with type II diabetes is unable to produce glucagon when blood sugar levels decrease, so they must inject insulin to maintain homeostasis.Type II diabetics produce no insulin when blood sugar levels increase, so they must inject glucagon to maintain homeostasis.Type II diabetics maintain abnormally low blood sugar levels after eating sugary foods, so they must inject glucose in order to maintain blood glucose homeostasis.Type II diabetics produce insulin when blood sugar levels increase, but their cells do not respond to insulin effectively, so they must control blood glucose homeostasis through diet and exercise.you are alone and performing cycles of 5 back blows and 5 abdominal thrusts on a conscious child who is choking. this child becomes unconscious after a minute or two. you gently lower the child to the floor. what is the next thing you should do?
If the child with choking (foreign body airway obstruction) is, or becomes, unconscious, move to treatment with the paediatric basic life support algorithm.
Paediatric Basic Life Support
1. After lower the child to the floor, call for help if it is still not available
2. Check airway opening: When the airway is opened for attempted delivery of rescue breaths, look to see if the foreign body can be seen in the mouth. If an object is seen, attempt to remove it with a single finger sweep. Do not attempt blind or repeated finger sweeps – these can push the object more deeply into the pharynx and cause injury.
3. Rescue breaths: Open the airway and attempt 5 rescue breaths. Assess the effectiveness of each breath: if a breath does not make the chest rise, reposition the head before making the next attempt. Proceed immediately to chest compression regardless of whether the breaths are successful and perform CPR.
4. Chest compression and CPR: Continue with paediatric BLS using a C:V ratio of 15:2 until help arrives or child improves.
If the child regains consciousness and is breathing effectively, place them in a safe side-lying (recovery) position and monitor breathing and conscious level whilst awaiting the arrival of the ambulance.
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which assessment will the nurse make for a patient is prescribed metformin for treatment of type 2 diabetes
The nurse will assess Renal function.
Type 2 diabetes, also known as adult-onset diabetes, is a type of diabetes characterized by high blood sugar levels, insulin resistance, and a relative lack of insulin. Increased thirst, frequent urination, and unexplained weight loss are common symptoms. Symptoms may also include increased hunger, fatigue, and unhealed sores. Symptoms frequently appear gradually.
Long-term complications of diabetes include heart disease, strokes, diabetic retinopathy (which can lead to blindness), kidney failure, and poor blood flow in the limbs, which can lead to amputations. Although a sudden onset of hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state is possible, ketoacidosis is uncommon.
Because metformin is excreted by the kidneys, the patient's renal function must be evaluated. If the patient's kidneys are unable to excrete the drug, it will build up in their system, causing lactic acidosis. Metformin does not cause headaches. Weight loss, not weight gain, is one of metformin's side effects. Some diabetic patients may have high cholesterol levels, which can be treated with medications and lifestyle changes.
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ultrasound of intensity 175 w/m2 is produced by the rectangular head of a medical imaging device measuring 3.00 cm by 6.00 cm. what is the power output of the device?
1968.75x10^-4 w is the power output of the device at ultrasound of intensity 175 w/m2 is produced by the rectangular head of a medical imaging device measuring 3.00 cm by 6.00 cm.
let given,
ultrasound of Intensity = 175 W/m²
Area ,A = 4.572.5x10^-4 m²
power, p = ?
Intensity = power / Area
power = Intensity x Area
P = IXA
P = 175 W/m² X 4.572.5x10^-4 m²
P = 1968.75x10^-4 w
the power output will be 1968.75x10^-4 w
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the nurse is testing superficial reflexes on an adult patient. when stroking up the lateral side of the sole and across the ball of the foot, the nurse notices plantar flexion of the toes. how should the nurse interpret this finding?
Plantar reflex present. The nurse should make a light, upside-down "J"-shaped stroke with the same tool across the ball of the foot and up the lateral side of the sole.
The typical reaction is plantar flexion of the toes, and occasionally the entire foot. When the big toe responds by dorsiflexing and all other toes fan out, the Babinski sign is positive, which is abnormal. A 0 to 4+ scale is not used to grade the plantar reflex. In patients who are unconscious or who may have suffered injuries to the lumbar 5-5 or sacral 1-2 regions of the spinal cord, the plantar reflex is the only superficial reaction that should be evaluated. With the handle of a reflex hammer or a tongue blade, stimulate the bottom of the foot.
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the nurse is helping the client prepare for discharge after a severe case of food poisoning. the client has been tolerating feedings, and the health care provider would like the client to advance to a soft diet for the next week until the next office visit. when the client asks why the provider is prescribing a soft diet, how should the nurse respond?
Reduce intestinal activity to aid in healing after food poison. The BRAT diet includes the items that are typically advised to eat after the stomach flu, food poisoning, or a typical stomach discomfort.
BRAT stands for bread, bananas, rice, and applesauce. These particular foods are the best since they are bland and simple to digest. It also takes time for the intestines to recover. A virus that inflames your stomach and intestines is what causes this intestinal illness. Although there is no cure for this viral illness, you may take precautions to be healthy. The easiest way to prevent gastroenteritis is to wash your hands often and thoroughly. Since the stomach flu is communicable and usually develops after contact with an infected individual, prevention is crucial.
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on a recent evening, bob took his normal prescription medications and had two glasses of red wine. the interaction of one of the drugs with the alcohol multiplied the effects of the drug to the point that bob began to lose consciousness. fortunately, zach, acted quickly and got bob to the emergency room in time. the kind of drug interaction bob experienced is called
The kind of drug interaction which Bob experienced due to the simultaneous consumption of alcohol is called Synergism.
The unusual mixing of alcohol with certain medications can cause condition of headache, drowsiness, sudden unconsciousness, loss of coordination, nausea and vomiting. Synergism is the condition when two or more drugs individually react together to produce overpowering effects which may or may not be harmful for the body. Sometimes in adverse conditions or rare case, it may also lead to hemorrhage or internal bleeding. It is advised to keep a time duration gap between the consumption of medicines and wine. Drinking alcohol is otherwise also injurious to health and has harmful effects on the organ system especially kidney. Alcohol must be avoided while following a prescription of painkillers.
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which therapy focuses heavily on creating an accepting and supportive environment for self-discovery?
the nurse understands that a diagnostic-related group is one of the reimbursement strategies in a prospective payment system. the diagnostic-related group is a part of which health care system?
The diagnostic-related group in a prospective payment system is a part of the Medicare healthcare system.
Prospective Payment System or PPS is a reimbursement method in healthcare. It's using a diagnostic-related strategy as a part of the Medicare healthcare system. Under PPS, the hospital is paid a predetermined and fixed amount of money per Medicare discharge. Some characteristics of PPS are:
The payment covers defined periods, such as per certain-day episodes.The amount of payment is based on each patient's own assessment classification.Some classifications of PPS include acute inpatient, home health agencies, long-term care hospital, inpatient rehabilitation facilities, hospice, and many more.
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which condition or disorder is the most debilitating for the patient who has it? explain your answer. how does the condition or disorder affect the normal function or structure of the circulatory system? if you were a cardiologist, which condition or disorder do you think would be the easiest to treat? which one would be the most difficult to treat? why?
Coronary artery blockage resulting in myocardial infarction is the condition that is most incapacitating.
What is Myocardial infarction?
Myocardial infarction, often known as a heart attack, is a condition where the blood supply to the heart is impaired, impairing both its function and the flow of oxygen-rich blood to the body.
When a myocardial infarction occurs, the heart's normal cardiac output, which is 5 litres per minute, is diminished because the heart's muscles are unable to contract because they are obtaining insufficient oxygen.
Elevation of the ST segment is one ECG alteration.
Nitroglycerin can be used to treat a patient with stable angina or angina that flares up after exercise if it is discovered early.
Myocardial Infarctionand Cardiomyopathies would be the most challenging to cure.
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the nurse cares for a terminally ill patient who has 20-second periods of apnea followed by periods of deepand rapid breathing. which action by the nurse would be most appropriate?
Cheyne-Stokes respirations are characterized by periods of apnea alternating with deep and rapid breaths action by the nurse would be most appropriate , the nurse cares for a terminally ill patient who has 20-second periods of apnea followed by periods of deepand rapid breathing.
When the muscles at the back of your throat relax too much, it causes obstructed apnea during sleep. The soft palate, the uvula, the tonsils, the tongue, and the triangular bit of tissue that hangs from the soft palate are all supported by these muscles. Age and obesity are risk factors. Men are more likely to have it. Snoring loudly and experiencing fatigue even after a full night's sleep are symptoms. Treatment frequently entails modifying one's way of living, such as losing weight and using a CPAP machine or other breathing aid at night.
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when used systemically, antifungal drugs tend to cause more adverse effects than antibiotics because:
Despite their success at targeting fungi, antifungal medications for systemic infections have more toxic side effects than antibiotics for bacteria.
Antibiotics like penicillin come to mind when we think of antimicrobial medications. Penicillin and related antibiotics inhibit peptidoglycan cell wall synthesis, effectively targeting bacterial cells. Because humans (like all eukaryotes) lack peptidoglycan cell walls, these antibiotics are beneficial. It is more difficult to create medications that are effective against eukaryotic cells but are not harmful to human cells.
Despite their vast morphological differences, human, fungi, and protist cells share ribosomes, cytoskeletons, and cell membranes. As a result, developing medications that target protozoans and fungi in the same way that antibiotics target prokaryotes is more difficult.
Fungicides have only a few modes of action. Because fungi have ergosterols (rather than cholesterol) in their cell membranes, some medications may target the various enzymes involved in sterol production. Fungicides like azole and morpholine disrupt the synthesis of membrane sterols. These are widely used in agriculture (fenpropimorph) and in medicine (e.g., miconazole). Some antifungal medications target fungi's chitin cell walls.
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a 8-year- old boy has a severe sore throat, high fever, and cervical adenopathy. it is suspected that the causative agent is streptococcus pyogenes. before antibiotic therapy is initiated, the patient is given aspirin to reduce his fever. the mechanism of fever reduction by aspirin is
A 8-year-old child is suffering with cervical adenopathy, a terrible sore throat, and a high temperature. Streptococcus pyogenes is thought to be the causing agent. The patient is given aspirin to treat his fever before starting antibiotic therapy. Strep pharyngitis is the cause of aspirin's ability to lower fevers.
Acute pharyngitis can be brought on by numerous viruses and bacteria. Acute pharyngitis, often known as strep throat, is brought on by Streptococcus pyogenes, generally known as group A Streptococcus (group A strep). Streptococcus pyogenes, often known as group A streptococcus, is the bacterium that causes strep throat.
The streptococcal bacteria spread readily. They can be spread through shared food or drinks, or through droplets produced when an infected person coughs or sneezes. If left untreated, strep throat usually goes away in three to five days. Antibiotic therapy is advised despite the brief period to lower the risk of complications. After taking antibiotics for one to three days, symptoms usually go away.
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dr. jokocha gave ken a phenothiazine to reduce his hallucinations, but the doctor then realized that the medication caused muscular tremors similar to those in parkinson's disease. dr. jokocha concluded that ken's psychosis was related to excessive:
dr. Jokocha gave Ken phenothiazines to reduce his hallucinations, but the drugs caused tremors like Parkinson's. Doctors concluded that Ken's psychosis was related to an excess of dopamine.
What is the link between Parkinson's disease and psychosis?Hallucinations and delusions in patients with complications of Parkinson's disease are often referred to as Parkinson's disease psychosis. Psychosis is quite common in people with complications of Parkinson's, especially in the late stages of the disease.
It is estimated that up to 50 percent of people will present with Parkinson's complications. Psychotic symptoms of Parkinson's are associated with high levels of a neurotransmitter known as dopamine.
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as part of his role at the local hospital, jake is reviewing joint commission standards to ensure that the organization is meeting the accreditation requirements. as part of the review, jake is looking at a specific set of standards that are primarily focused on documentation. some of the standard requirements include care provided, procedures that were done on the patient, and the progress of the patient. based on this scenario, which set of joint commission standards is jake reviewing?
Jake is reviewing the Record of care standards which is a set of joint
commission standards.
What are Joint Commission standards?
Joint Commission standards are a set of guidelines and requirements that healthcare organizations must adhere to in order to receive and maintain accreditation from The Joint Commission. These standards are based on evidence-based best practices and are regularly updated to reflect current healthcare trends. The standards are intended to ensure that patients receive safe and high-quality care and that organizations are managed in a responsible and ethical manner. The standards cover topics such as patient rights and responsibilities, staff qualifications, patient assessment and care planning, and environment of care.
What is the Record of Care standards ?
The Record of Care Standards are standards for the recording and maintenance of health and social care records. They are designed to ensure that records are accurate, consistent, and up-to-date. The standards cover the content, format, and security of records, as well as the transfer of information between different providers of health and social care services. The standards are based on the principles of openness, transparency, and accountability, and help to ensure that records are kept securely and information is shared appropriately.
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in the context of associating cardiovascular diseases with stress, who is most likely to suffer from a cardiovascular disease?
A person working on difficult projects for months is most likely to suffer from a cardiovascular disease.
Cardiovascular disease (CVD) refers to a group of diseases that affect the heart or blood vessels. CVD includes coronary artery disease (CAD), which includes angina and myocardial infarction (commonly known as a heart attack). Stroke, heart failure, hypertensive heart disease, rheumatic heart disease, cardiomyopathy, abnormal heart rhythms, congenital heart disease, valvular heart disease, carditis, aortic aneurysms, peripheral artery disease, thromboembolic disease, and venous thrombosis are among the other CVDs.
High blood pressure, high LDL cholesterol, diabetes, smoking and secondhand smoke exposure, obesity, an unhealthy diet, and physical inactivity are all major risk factors for heart disease and stroke.
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whereas in horizontal bone loss, inflammation spreads through tissue, ending in the , in vertical bone loss, inflammation spreads through tissue, ending in the . group of answer choices a) periodontal ligament; alveolar bone b) alveolar bone; periodontal ligament c) both paths end up in alveolar bone d) gingival connective tissue; periodontal ligament
Whereas in horizontal bone loss, inflammation spreads through tissue, ending in the Periodontal ligament, in vertical bone loss, inflammation spreads through tissue, ending in the alveolar bone, which suggests that option A is the right answer.
Periodontal disease refers to the situation which is caused by some specific bacteria that triggers the production of inflammatory mediators. It leads to loss of tissue and their function. Periodontitis is a bacteria based inflammatory disease which is responsible for alveolar bone loss. Alveolar bone is the thick ridge of bone which contains the tooth sockets. Periodontal ligament is the mass of tissue which holds the teeth in place. However, it is mistaken as gum. It inserts into root cementum on one side and over alveolar bone on the other.
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the nurse has just administered an opioid antagonist to a client who had been experiencing respiratory depression. how soon can the nurse expect to see improvement in the client's respiratory function?
The nurse administered an opioid antagonist to a client who had been experiencing respiratory depression. Within one to five minutes an effect may be seen on the patient.
Opioid analgesics are used to treat pain that ranges from moderate to severe. The most effective drug for treating severe pain is morphine. Because there is no "limit effect," or increase in analgesia with dose, it is also frequently used to treat cancer pain and end-of-life pain. Hydromorphone and fentanyl are two more drugs that may be given via patient-controlled analgesia (PCA), in addition to morphine. The patient presses a button on a PCA device to receive the opioid; this releases a predetermined dose and also has a lockout mechanism to prevent an overdose.
The complete question is:
The nurse has just administered an opioid antagonist to a client who had been experiencing respiratory depression. How soon can the nurse expect to see improvement in the client's respiratory function?
a) Within one to five minutes, an effect may be seen.
b) Slow improvement can be noted throughout the shift.
c) Response is highly individualized based upon client weight.
d) Improvement will occur within 30 minutes from the time of administration.
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a client who has been prescribed fluoxetine for depression and has just had the dosage increased comes to the emergency department. the nurse suspects serotonin syndrome based on which assessment? select all that apply.
Change in mental state, Ataxia, Diaphoresis, and Fever are among the observations that lead the nurse to suspect serotonin syndrome prescribed fluoxetine .
Serotonin syndrome symptoms include altered mental state, autonomic dysfunction, and anomalies of the neuromuscular system. Mental status changes, agitation, myoclonus, hyperreflexia, fever, shivering, diaphoresis, ataxia, and diarrhea must all be present for a diagnosis with fluoxetine . The Serotonin syndrome most common cause of the potentially fatal neurological illness neuroleptic malignant syndrome is an unfavorable response to neuroleptic or antipsychotic medications. Serotonin syndrome High temperature, perspiration, unstable blood pressure, sluggishness, tightness of the muscles, and autonomic dysfunction are among the symptoms.
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a client reports experiencing increased stress at work. the client has been managing the stress by drinking 2 or 3 glasses of wine per evening. despite the nurse recommending that drinking alcohol is not an effective way to manage the stress, the client feels it will be difficult to stop drinking. which statement explains why this will be difficult for the client?
The habit of stopping alcohol consumption will be difficult for the client because the client has no adaptive coping mechanisms, which suggests option D is the right answer.
The client is experiencing undue pressure and anxiety due to which he has resorted to drinking but this is certainly not a correct way of dealing with such situations. Anxiety is the condition of feeling of uneasiness, such as worry or fear which causes restlessness and irritation. The better option would be to communicate with senior management to find out better ways of work distribution so that it does not become a hectic schedule. Also spending some leisure time would be effective. The nurse should not ask the client to give up coping mechanisms, even maladaptive ones, without offering other adaptive mechanisms.
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To refer to complete question, see below:
A client reports the client has been experiencing increased stress at work. The client has been managing the stress by drinking 2-3 glasses of wine per evening. Despite the nurse recommending that drinking alcohol is not an effective way to manage the stress, the client reports it is unlikely that the client will be able to stop. Which statement explains why this will be difficult for the client?
A few glasses of wine each night is not necessarily a problem.Drinking alcohol is more socially acceptable than taking medications.The client is probably physically dependent on alcohol.The client has no adaptive coping mechanisms.consumption of raw egg whites is related to deficiency of what vitamin that likely caused rocky to lose to apollo creed?
Consumption of raw egg whites is related to deficiency of biotin vitamin that likely caused rocky to lose to Apollo creed.
One of the B vitamins is biotin (or vitamin B7). It is involved in a variety of metabolic processes in both humans and other organisms, primarily those involving the utilization of fats, carbohydrates, and amino acids.
Biotin is a heterocyclic compound that contains a sulfur-containing ring fused ureido and tetrahydrothiophene group. One of the rings has a C5-carboxylic acid side chain attached to it. The carbon dioxide carrier in carboxylation reactions is the ureido ring, which contains the NCON group. Biotin is a coenzyme for five carboxylase enzymes that are involved in amino acid and fatty acid catabolism, fatty acid synthesis, and gluconeogenesis. Histone protein biotinylation in nuclear chromatin influences chromatin stability and gene expression.
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a nurse has completed 4 hours of an 8-hour shift on a medical-surgical unit when the nursing supervisor calls. the nursing supervisor directs the nurse to give a report to the other two nurses on the medical-surgical unit and immediately report to the telemetry unit to assist with staff needs on that unit. the nurse informs the supervisor that the nurse has been busy with client assignments and feels this will overwhelm the nurses on the medical-surgical unit. the supervisor informs the nurse that the need is greater on the telemetry unit. this is an example of which type of ethical problem?
This given example suggests ethical problem related to proper Allocation of scarce nursing resources.
Since the nurse has to look after two jobs which carry equal importance according to her, her confrontation to the supervisor is valid. However, supervisor on the other hand is unaware of the actual medical conditions of the patient and finds that the requirement of staff in telemetry unit carries greater importance so he directs the nurse to report in the telemetry unit. In healthcare system though electronic facilities have made things easier to do, yet when the nurses themselves are not properly trained to operate the machines, they might find it difficult to complete their duties. Telemetry units in hospitals are the facilitative units where patients are under constant electronic monitoring.
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what statement made by an older adult client is associated with a problem identified as the greatest source of concern among members of that population?
The statement made by an older adult client is associated with a problem identified as the greatest source of concern among members of that population is "I don't have much control over my life anymore."
The term "population" refers to all citizens who are either continuously residing in a nation or are just temporarily away from it. This indicator displays the population of a certain area on a regular basis.
The life experiences of older adult are frequently unknowable, unexpected, inevitable, and even unwelcome or frightening. As a result, elderly people may feel a greater loss of control or dread of losing control over their life. The dread of having little or no control over one's life overrides the other claims, which do describe genuine problems for the elderly population.
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some diseases, such as cancer and diabetes, are caused by defective protein phosphatases. explain how such a defective protein would affect a signal transduction pathway.
Protein phosphatases are enzymes that weaken the activity of the protein that play an important role in terminating the signal in signal transduction pathway.
Protein phosphatases remove phosphate groups from proteins. The removal of phosphate can turn off or weaken the activity of the proteins thus help in terminating the signal in cascade.
When a cell receive a signal, a cascade of phosphorylation events is activated. These phosphorylation activate proteins that carry out the response of cell to the signal. Once the signal is no longer needed, protein phosphatases dephosphorylate the proteins, terminating the signal and returning the cell to its resting state.
If a protein phosphatase is defective, dephosphorylate of the proteins will not take place. This can lead to a prolonged activation of the signal transduction pathway thus leading to number of diseases like cancer and diabetes.
Therefore, above given is the explanation of how a defective protein can affect a signal transduction pathway.
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a nurse explains cognitive behavioral therapy (cbt) to a client who is experiencing chronic insomnia. which statements by the nurse best describe this therapy? select all that apply.
CBT for Chronic insomnia may include progressive muscle relaxation measures, stimulus control, and sleep restriction therapy. Used with other complementary therapies, CBT is very successful.
You will meet with a therapist to work through any maladaptive sleep beliefs. Insomnia can be cured by attending to the underlying cause, although it occasionally persists for years. Chronic insomnia has a variety of reasons, including: Stress. A uncommon hereditary brain illness called fatal familial insomnia (FFI) affects sleep patterns. It is characterized by an inability to fall asleep (insomnia), which may start off moderate but gets worse with time, causing serious physical and mental decline. Chronic insomnia has a variety of reasons, including: Stress. Insomnia can also be brought on by traumatic or stressful life events like divorce, losing your job, losing a loved one to death or disease.
The complete question is:
A nurse explains cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) to a client who is experiencing chronic insomnia. Which statements by the nurse best describe this therapy? Select all that apply.
1. Pharmacologic approaches should be attempted prior to CBT to resolve the insomnia."
2. "CBT may include progressive muscle relaxation measures, stimulus control, and sleep restriction therapy."
3. "Clients undergoing CBT are asked to stay in bed during normal sleep hours even if they are unable to sleep."
4. "Used with other complementary therapies, CBT is very successful."
5. "You will meet with a therapist to work through any maladaptive sleep beliefs."
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a client with a compound fracture of the femur is in balanced skeletal traction. which assessment data must be reported immediately?
Redness and heat at fracture site must be reported immediately.
Skeletal traction is a method of treating broken bones. It is a system that uses a combination of pulleys, pins, and weights to promote bone healing. These are typically found in the lower body.
Skeletal traction is primarily used to correct and maintain the position of a cervical spine fracture-dislocation or to act as a splint for undisplaced cervical fractures. Torticollis and cervical spondylosis are treated with balanced traction.
Skeletal traction is used for fractures that require a lot of force applied directly to the bone because it allows more weight to be added with less risk of damaging the soft tissues around the bone. If you require skeletal traction, it will be performed under anesthetic to minimize pain.
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the nurse is preparing for the admission of a client with a prescription for seizure precautions. which supplies will the nurse make available to this client?
The nurse will make these supplies available to the client:
OxygenSuction machinePrescribed diazepamPadding for the side railsSeizures come in a variety of forms. The majority of seizures are short-lived.
The following are general actions to take to assist someone having any kind of seizure:
As soon as the seizure stops and the person regains consciousness, stay by their side. When it's over, assist the person in finding a secure seat. Tell them what happened in simple words once they are awake and speaking.
Soothe the person and maintain composure.
Verify if the wearer is sporting a medical ID bracelet or any other type of emergency identification.
Keep everyone calm, including yourself.
To make sure the person gets home securely, offer to call a taxi or a friend.
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