The advantage of qualified plans to employers is
A - Tax-free earnings.
B - No lump-sum payments.
C- Taxable contributions.
D - Tax-deductible contributions.

Answers

Answer 1

The advantage of qualified plans to employers is taxable contributions. The correct option is C.

What are qualified plans?

Retaining workers could also be aided by weighing the contribution or benefit according to years of service. The fact that money accumulated in a qualified retirement plan is often immune from creditor claims is another benefit for both the employer and the employee.

Contribution earnings increase tax-deferred. Creditors are shielded from qualified plans. Gives employees a beneficial perk and aids in luring and keeping workers. Benefits are not taxed until they are actually received.

Therefore, the correct option is C- Taxable contributions.

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Related Questions

What is management by objectives?

Answers

Establishing precise, quantifiable objectives is management by objectives.

Determining the techniques, actions, and activities needed to accomplish the goals. Creating and distributing tasks, plans, protocols, and assignments to complete tasks

All governmental levels, non-governmental groups, and the private sector must work together to prevent, mitigate, respond to, and recover from incidents. The  NIMS is utilized in order to do this. Two of the five components of NIMS are command and management. Preparedness. the control of resources. administration and communication of information.

A component of management by objectives is the setting of clear, measurable goals. deciding on plans, tasks, actions, and techniques to achieve the objectives. To complete tasks, strategies, processes, and protocols are developed and distributed.

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9) Specialty stores are characterized by ________.
A) the sale of convenience and staple items
B) narrow product lines with deep assortments
C) a wide range of products and categories
D) low prices on a wide range of goods
E) routinely purchased food products and services

Answers

Specialty stores are characterized by narrow product lines with deep assortments.

What is sale example?

A sale would be when you purchase anything from a local store or an internet retailer. Wherever you ask for anything, the merchant will always respond. The sale occurs when the product is paid for and purchased.

What purpose do sales serve?

The development of consumer loyalty and trust in businesses is significantly influenced by sales. The key factors that influence a customer's decision to refer your business to a family member or friend or to provide a positive online review of your goods or services are trust and loyalty. An organization's thorough plan to boost sales performance, innovation, and growth by more effectively entering current markets and increasing share of current customers' wallets is known as a sales strategy.

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Para 2-1 Who will benefit from Soldiers meeting Body fat percentages?

Answers

Depending on service and age, the upper limit for male body fat is 18 to 26 percent, while the upper limit for female body fat is 26 to 34 percent

In what range may a person's body fat be?Depending on service and age, the upper limit for male body fat is 18 to 26 percent, while the upper limit for female body fat is 26 to 34 percent (See Table 2-3). Both fitness and compliance with weight-for-height criteria are checked on active duty individuals by each service either annually or semi-annually.When it comes to determining body composition, hydrostatic weighing is highly accurate. The method employs tried-and-true variables with a low error rate. Hydrostatic weighing is considered the gold standard for determining body composition because of this by many professionals.          

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A nurse is caring for a client with severe diarrhea. The nurse monitors the client closely, understanding that this client is at risk for developing which acid-base disorder?
1. Metabolic acidosis
2. Metabolic alkalosis
3. Respiratory acidosis
4. Respiratory alkalosis

Answers

The response is metabolic alkalosis.

Severe vomiting episodes can lead to metabolic alkalosis in some people. People who are critically ill or hospitalized for specific ailments frequently experience it as well.

What might cause acidosis?

reduced blood sugar (hypoglycemia) drugs including metformin, anti-retrovirals, and salicylates. MELAS (a extremely rare hereditary mitochondrial condition that impacts energy production) (a very rare genetic mitochondrial disorder that affects energy production) prolonged oxygen deprivation caused by heart failure, shock, or severe anemia.

Is alkalosis or acidosis the result of diarrhea?

The most typical source of external alkali loss that results in metabolic acidosis is diarrhea. Because they are alkaline, biliary, pancreatic, and duodenal secretions can balance out the acidity of stomach secretions.

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The acid-base disorder in this case is metabolic acidosis, so the first option is the correct one.

This client is at risk for developing which acid-base disorder?

The metabolic acidosis is a condition in which the blood pH is low due to an excess of acid or a loss of bicarbonate.

Severe diarrhea can cause a loss of bicarbonate from the gastrointestinal tract, resulting in metabolic acidosis.

The client may exhibit signs and symptoms such as weakness, fatigue, nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, headache, confusion, and hyperventilation.

None of the other disorders can be cased for severe diarrhea, thus, the correct option is the first one.

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CSDP is a program that addresses what four things?

Answers

CSDP is a program that addresses the following four things:

Conservation

Stewardship

Planning

Policy

What are the.four things addressed?

Conservation: CSDP aims to conserve and restore the natural resources and biodiversity of the Sonoran Desert region, which spans parts of Arizona, California, and Mexico.

Stewardship: CSDP promotes stewardship of the Sonoran Desert by engaging and educating the public, fostering partnerships, and supporting community-based initiatives. Stewardship activities include outreach and advocacy, volunteer programs, citizen science, and collaborative projects.

Planning: CSDP participates in planning processes that affect the Sonoran Desert, such as land use, transportation, water, and energy. Planning activities include providing scientific and policy input, reviewing and commenting on proposals, and advocating for conservation and stewardship goals.

Policy: CSDP influences policy decisions that affect the Sonoran Desert at the local, state, and federal levels. Policy activities include lobbying and campaigning, developing and endorsing policy statements, and participating in coalitions and networks.

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What is the name of the canal connecting the Hudson River with the Great Lakes?

Answers

The construction of the Erie Canal was a landmark civil engineering achievement in the early history of the United States.

What canal connects the Great Lakes?The Erie Canal is an artificial waterway located in the state of New York. It is 363 miles long and runs from Albany on the Hudson River to Buffalo on Lake Erie, creating a navigable waterway from the Great Lakes to the Atlantic Ocean.Today, the Erie Canal is mainly used by recreational watercraft. It connects the three other canals in the New York State Canal System: the Champlain, Oswego, and Cayuga–Seneca. Some long-distance boaters take the Erie as part of the Great Loop. The canal has also become a tourist attraction in its own right—a number of parks and museums are dedicated to its history. The Erie Canalway Trail is a popular cycling path that follows the canal across the state. In 2000, Congress designated the Erie Canalway National Heritage Corridor to protect and promote the system.The construction of the canal was first presented in 1808. From 1817 to 1832 the construction itself took place and on 26 October 1825 it was officially opened. It was the first transport system between the East Coast (New York) and the West Inland (Great Lakes), during which there was no need for transhipment. In addition, shipping was faster than animal-drawn vehicles and transport costs were also reduced by around 95%. The channel contributed to the arrival of new settlers in the western areas of New York State, opened the areas further west for future colonization, and helped New York become America's main port.

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"The name of the canal connecting the Hudson River with the Great Lakes is the Erie Canal.

What was the Erie Canal ?

The Erie Canal is a man-made waterway that was built in the early 19th century to create a navigable route between the Atlantic Ocean and the Great Lakes. The canal runs for about 363 miles (584 km) from Albany, New York, on the Hudson River, to Buffalo, New York, on Lake Erie. The canal also connects with other smaller canals, such as the Champlain Canal, the Oswego Canal, and the Cayuga-Seneca Canal, that link to other rivers and lakes in the region.

The Erie Canal was a major engineering feat and a significant economic and social development in the history of the United States. The canal reduced the cost and time of transporting goods and people between the eastern seaboard and the western frontier, stimulating trade, commerce, and settlement. The canal also fostered cultural and political exchanges, as well as environmental and social changes, along its route. The canal is considered one of the first examples of a large-scale public works project in the country, and it influenced the construction of other canals and railroads in the following decades."

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Which type of visual cortex cell responds equally to stimuli throughout a large receptive field?

Answers

With circularly symmetric receptive fields and nearly comparable responses to all stimulus orientations, lateral geniculate neurons and retinal neurons are similar to each other.

What form of visual processing is made possible by large receptive fields?

The receptive fields of different types of mechanoreceptors vary in size. Although they enable the cell to notice changes over a larger region, large receptive fields result in less accurate perception.

In which cells are the receptive fields larger?

The remaining 5% are non-M, non-P ganglion cells, which have not yet been thoroughly defined. Type M ganglion cells have wider receptive fields, propagate action potentials more quickly in the optic nerve, and are more sensitive to low-contrast stimuli in addition to being larger themselves.

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One type of visual cortex cell that responds equally to stimuli throughout a large receptive field is a complex cell.

What are complex cells?They are neurons of the primary visual cortex (V1).These are cells that respond to oriented edges or bars of light that move in a specific direction.They are cells that have large receptive fields that are uniformly organized.These are cells that respond equally to stimuli from anywhere in the receptive field.They are cells formed by the convergence of inputs from multiple single cells.

Complex cells are important for detecting motion and shape in visual scenes, as they are less sensitive to the exact location of the stimuli. They may also contribute to higher-level processes such as object recognition and depth perception.

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Assuming normal account balances, the following statement is true when balancing a T-account or Ledger?
A. Assets normally have debit balances.
B. Liabilities normally have debit balances.
C. Revenues normally have debit balances.
D. Common Stock normally has a debit balance.

Answers

The correct answer is Assets have normal debit balances. I am taking accounting so I know this is correct. Hope this helps. Please give brainliest I need five more

Assuming normal account balances, the following statement is true when balancing a T-account or Ledger: Assets normally have debit balances. Option A.

What is an asset?

Anything that will or now has economic worth to a company is considered an asset. In essence, assets for businesses are any things that are under the company's control and ownership and are either currently valuable or have the potential to be profitable in the future. Patents, machines, and investments are some examples.

A liability is money you owe, whereas an asset is everything you own that increases your financial value. Personal assets include things like your house. other real estate, like a rental home or a business building. Savings and checking accounts.

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When is it most important that the person served feels that the environment is a safe place where they can discuss details of their trauma?
a) In outpatient settings
b) In residential treatment facilities
c) In and inpatient setting
d) In all settings

Answers

Office of Mental Health Services. Behavioral Health Services with Trauma-Informed Care. gain a sense of safety by seeking it. adults who have had traumatic experiences, been diagnosed with substance use disorders, or both. Safety, choice, collaboration, trustworthiness, and empowerment are the five guiding principles.

What is Trauma-informed?

The first crucial step in providing trauma-informed care is making sure that an individual's physical and emotional safety are taken into consideration. Trauma-informed care has the potential to enhance patient engagement, treatment adherence, health outcomes, and provider and staff wellness because it recognizes the need to comprehend a patient's life experiences in order to give effective care. As a trauma team member. you must take precautions to avoid coming into contact with blood and bodily fluids.

Airway management and maintaining breathing, oxygenation, and perfusion are given first emphasis right away.

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A convenience store ________.
A) markets to segments comprised mostly of white-collar workers
B) stocks narrow product lines that have wide, deep assortments
C) carries a limited line of high-turnover goods for consumer self-service
D) involves high operation costs due to full-service customer assistance
E) is a multi-channel food and discount retailer that targets niche markets

Answers

A convenience store is a multi-channel food and discount retailer that targets niche markets.

What is the significance of a convenience store?Convenience stores are small, stand-alone stores located in and around a populated area. These outlets can also be found at petrol pumps and gas stations. A person who wants gas, diesel, or gasoline for their car can easily go to one of these establishments and receive the supplies he or she requires. These stores can also be found near highways, train stations, and other points of interest. Convenience stores are so named because of the convenience they give. These establishments can serve consumers 24 hours a day, seven days a week, or according to the location, authorization, or company requirements. Convenience goods such as foods, groceries, and beverages are commonly found in convenience stores. These shops vary their product base based on demand, demography, and business requirements in order to optimize sales and reduce inventory at their store.

What is a convenience store ?A convenience store, corner store, or corner shop is a small retail establishment that sells everyday commodities such as coffee, groceries, snack foods, confectionary, soft drinks, ice creams, tobacco products, lottery tickets, over-the-counter drugs, toiletries, newspapers, and magazines.Tobacco, beverages, snacks, and confectioneries are among the fast-moving commodities sold in typical convenience stores. In such cases, store sales may account for only approximately 10% of total revenue. Parking is frequently only available near the pumps. Hours vary depending on location and the owner's preferences.

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To be consistent with the historical cost principle, overhead costs incurred by an enterprise constructing its own building should be: allocated on a pro rata basis between the asset and normal operations.

Answers

The value of an asset is represented on the balance sheet at its original cost when it was purchased by the company using the accounting term "historical cost."

Why is historical cost principle important?

The value of an asset is represented on the balance sheet at its original cost when it was purchased by the company using the accounting term "historical cost."

According to generally accepted accounting principles, the historical cost approach is applied to fixed assets in the United States (GAAP).

According to U.S. GAAP, the historical cost assumption is a fundamental accounting principle. Even if most assets have greatly improved in value over time, the historical cost principle requires that they be reported on the balance sheet at their historical cost.

Some assets are not kept at their historical cost. Marketable securities, for instance, are reported on the balance sheet at fair market value, while damaged intangible assets are written down from historical.

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After changing a dressing that was used to cover a draining wound on a client with Vancomycin Resistant Enterococcus (VRE), the nurse should take which step to ensure proper disposal of soiled dressing?
1Place the dressing in the bedside trash can
2Place the dressing in a red bag/hazardous materials bag
3Contact Environmental Services personnel to pick up the dressing
4Transport the dressing to the laboratory to be placed in the incinerator

Answers

The correct option 2: Place the dressing in a red bag/hazardous materials bag, to ensure proper disposal of soiled dressing.

Explain the term Vancomycin Resistant Enterococcus (VRE)?

When bacteria become resistant to the antibiotics intended to kill them, antibiotic resistance arises.

These microorganisms become vancomycin-resistant enterococci if they grow resistant to vancomycin, an antibiotic used to treat some drug-resistant illnesses (VRE).Vancomycin-resistant enterococcus is referred to as VRE. It is an illness caused by bacteria that have become resistant to vancomycin, an antibiotic. Normal habitats for Enterococcus bacteria include the female vaginal tract and the intestines. Typically, it doesn't make us ill.Previous research has identified a number of risk factors for VRE colonization, including old age, a serious underlying illness, hospital transfers between facilities, nursing home residence, prolonged hospitalization, specialist dietary care, central venous catheterization,

Thus, to ensure that dirty dressing is disposed of properly, put the dressing inside a red bag or hazardous materials bag.

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Name the embedded protein complex found in the thylakoid membrane that provides excited electrons to the electron transport chain.

Answers

the embedded protein complex found in the thylakoid membrane that provides excited electrons to the electron transport chain ATP synthase.

What protein is found in the thylakoid membrane?

The thylakoid membranes are a specialised intracellular membrane system in which four large photosynthetic protein complexes, namely photosystem II (PSII), cytochrome b6f (cytb6f), photosystem I (PSI), and ATP synthase, are embedded.

What is the source of excited electrons in the electron transport chain?

Electron carriers such as NADH and FADH2 transport excited electrons to the electron transport chain. Water donates electrons to photosynthetic organisms, which are then excited by light energy. As the electrons are passed to the first protein complex in the chain, the electron donor is oxidised.

What are the different kinds of embedded proteins?

Integral membrane proteins are classified into two types based on their relationship with the bilayer: integral polytopic proteins and integral monotopic proteins.

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the combining forms that mean "chest are

Answers

The skin is the largest organ of the body, accounting for about 15% of the total adult body weight.

The combining forms that mean "chest" are thorac/o and pect/o.

What is a combining form?

A word form known as a combining form only appears as a component of another word. There are various categories of combining forms, each categorized by the type of word that comes from the application of the form.

A word root becomes a combining form when a vowel is added. This vowel, which is typically a "o," is known as a combining vowel. - cyst/o - thermionic Before another word root and before suffixes that start with a consonant, the combining vowel is used. The rule does not apply to prefixes.

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You have a computer that runs Windows 10. You have created a VHD file that contains a Windows 10 image. You need to perform offline servicing of the image in the VHD file to add a driver and enable some Windows features. You attach the VHD file. You use DISM to add a driver. You realize the driver should not have been added to the image. You need to undo the changes you have made using the least amount of effort possible. The VHD file is still attached. What should you do?

Answers

Entries from the offlineServicing section should be included to an unattend file. For each image, launch Dism to apply the file.

What must you complete in order to deploy the application on users' workstations?

Install the root certificate in the certificate store for Trusted Root Certification Authorities on each workstation. A Windows 10 machine needs sideloading enabled. To do this, click the relevant button in the Settings app.

What is the name of the network component that links various devices and filters packets according to where they are going on the network?

Switch: A network component that joins several devices and filters packets according to their destination inside the joined devices. Router: A component that receives and examines packets before routing them to their intended location.

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If you want to  undo the changes you have made using the least amount of effort possible you should use the DISM command with the /discard-image option.

What is the DISM command?

A command-line utility called Deployment Image Servicing and Management (DISM) is used to maintain Windows images. To mount and obtain details about Windows image (. wim) files, Full-flash utility (FFU) files, or virtual hard disks, utilize the DISM image management commands (VHD)

A command-line utility called Deployment Image Servicing and Management (DISM.exe) can be used to prepare and service Windows images, including those used for Windows Setup, Windows PE, and Windows Recovery Environment (Windows RE). A virtual hard disk or a Windows image (. wim) can be maintained using DISM.

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Begins at the cisterna chyli.
MALT
thoracic duct
aggregated lymphoid nodules
inguinal lymph nodes
thymic corpuscles

Answers

The thoracic duct starts from the cisterna chyli.

What begins at the Cisterna Chyli?The second or third lumbar vertebra is where the thoracic duct emerges from the cisterna chyli. After that, it passes through the diaphragm's aortic hiatus and enters the thorax. It then ascends in the posterior mediastinum, between the azygos vein on the right and the descending thoracic aorta on the left.At the caudal end of the thoracic duct, there is a lymphatic structure called the cisterna chyli, which receives lymph flowing from the viscera of the abdomen, pelvis, and lower limbs.In the retrocrural area, there is a dilated lymphatic sac called the cisterna chyli. It is situated at the thoracic duct's origin and is detected in 20% of autopsies and 50% of lymphangiographic examinations .

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Timmons, an electronic gadgets company, has declined in performance since new competitors entered the electronics market. Thomas Baker, the marketing manager at Timmons decided to sell off a number of declining brands, such as WebWay, its oldest general service cellphone model, and AmpOne, its first electronic music player. In these examples, management decided to ________ the products.

Answers

Its oldest general service cellphone model, and AmpOne, its first electronic music player. In these examples, management decided to drop the products.

What does it mean to drop a product?Product drops occur when a business briefly offers a limited-edition product range. As momentum grows around the exclusivity of a collection, it's a useful strategy for capitalising on consumers' competitive mentality and need for distinctive products.Although the idea of product drops is straightforward and has been around for some time, it has only recently become a regular part of the business models of major firms. A new breed of consumer that is fascinated with obtaining difficult-to-find things has only lately arisen.Because there is no guarantee that the products will continue to be manufactured and sold after the initial drop, product drops differ from product launches. Because of the rarity and urgency associated with product drops, it is crucial that customers be present when the item first becomes available. Launches of new products typically mark the beginning of a protracted era of manufacturing and availability.

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If two polling firms asked identical questions of the same group of 1,000 people, yet reported different results, this difference would likely be caused by

Answers

If two polling firms asked identical questions of the same group of 1,000 people, yet reported different results, this difference would likely be caused by the house effect.

What is the purpose of polling?

Polling can be used to control the execution or transmission sequence of the elements involved in a variety of computing contexts. Polling, for example, can be used in multitasking operating systems to allocate processor time and other resources to competing processes. Poling is a method of purifying metals with oxidized impurities. It is commonly used to purify metals such as copper or tin that are impure in the form of copper oxide or tin oxide.

A still-green log of wood is used to stir the liquid metal. Polling a device means checking the contents of the event buffer or getting the current state of the device objects on a regular basis.

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If all firms in an industry are price takers:

Answers

Even if an individual firm doubles its output, the market price cannot be changed.

What is perfect competition?

In economics, specifically general equilibrium theory, a perfect market, also known as an atomistic market, is defined by a number of idealizing conditions, which are referred to as perfect competition, or atomistic competition, as a whole. It has been shown in theoretical models under perfect competition that a market will find equilibrium when the supply of all goods and services, including labour, meets the demand for all goods and services at the price in question. A Pareto optimum would be this equilibrium. [Perfect competition offers both productive and allocative efficiency.

Such markets are allocatively efficient because output always occurs when marginal cost equals average revenue, or price (MC = AR), indicating that they are allocatively efficient. Any producer who maximizes profits must contend with a market price equal to its marginal cost (P = MC) in a situation of perfect competition.The assumptions of perfect competition imply that individuals in the market accept the market price as given.

Hence, even if an individual firm doubles its output, the market price cannot be changed.

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If all firms in an industry are price takers, it means that they have no control over the market price of their product.

What happens in a perfectly competitive industry?

In a perfectly competitive industry, the market price is determined by the intersection of the market demand and supply curves. Each firm faces a horizontal demand curve that is equal to the market price. The firm's marginal revenue is also equal to the market price, since each additional unit sold adds the same amount to the firm's total revenue. The firm's profit-maximizing output is where its marginal cost equals its marginal revenue, or the market price. The firm's profit is the difference between its total revenue and its total cost.

They have to accept the prevailing market price as given and adjust their output accordingly. This implies that the industry is perfectly competitive, meaning that there are many buyers and sellers, the product is homogeneous, there are no barriers to entry or exit, and there is perfect information.

In the long run, if the industry is profitable, new entrants will be attracted by the positive economic profits. This will increase the market supply and lower the market price, reducing the profits of the existing firms. Conversely, if the industry is unprofitable, some firms will exit the industry, reducing the market supply and raising the market price, increasing the profits of the remaining firms. The process of entry and exit will continue until the market price equals the minimum average total cost of the firms, and the economic profits are zero. This is the long-run equilibrium of a perfectly competitive industry."

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Reactions to Clients that are based, in part, on who the therapist is and what he/she brings to the therapy process" is a definition of ...
A. Sensitivity
B. Countertransference
C. Objectivity
D. Denial

Answers

A therapist's personal thoughts and feelings being projected onto a client is referred to as countertransference. This could be a problem, but contemporary psychotherapy acknowledges that there are also constructive types of countertransference.

What Is Countertransference?A therapist's initial internal response to their client based on the therapist's own psychological needs is referred to as countertransference in psychotherapy. This reaction can be conscious or unconscious.This frequently happens as a result of transference, which is when a patient projects unconscious feelings onto the therapist that were previously directed at significant individuals in the patient's own life.The inability to deal objectively with a client may be hampered by countertransference. Most competent therapists have a strong understanding of countertransference and how to deal with it.

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How do you find marginal utility cost per dollar

Answers

Marginal utility is the additional satisfaction or benefit that a consumer gets from consuming one more unit of a good or service. Marginal utility can be positive, negative, or zero depending on how the consumption of the good or service affects the consumer's total utility.

What is marginal utility?

Marginal utility cost per dollar is the ratio of marginal utility to the price of the good or service. It measures how much additional utility the consumer gets from spending one more dollar on the good or service. Marginal utility cost per dollar can be calculated by dividing the marginal utility of the good or service by its price.

For example, suppose a consumer has a marginal utility of 10 utils from buying the first slice of pizza and a marginal utility of 8 utils from buying the second slice of pizza. If the price of each slice of pizza is $2, then the marginal utility cost per dollar of the first slice is 10/2 = 5 and the marginal utility cost per dollar of the second slice is 8/2 = 4. This means that the consumer gets more additional utility per dollar from buying the first slice than from buying the second slice.

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On January 20, Complete Computer Service purchases $200 of office supplies on account.
The journal entry to record this transaction would be:
A. Office Supplies (D)
200
Accounts Payable (C)
200
B. Office Supplies (D)
200
Cash (C)
200
C. Accounts Supplies (D)
200
Office Supplies (C)
200
D. Office Supplies (D)
200
Accounts Receivable (C)
200

Answers

A is the correct answer.

Explanation: I just finished my first semester of accounting so I know this is correct. Please give brainliest I need five more.

Elderly nursing home residents tend to decline faster and die sooner than if theywould otherwise if the lack
biofeedback, alternative medicine, perceived control, central route of persuasion

Answers

Elderly nursing home residents tend to decline faster and die sooner than if they would otherwise if the lack perceived control.

What is perceived control?

Patients in nursing homes who lack perceived control tend to deteriorate faster and die sooner than they would otherwise. Perceived control is linked to mental well-being, a lower physiological effect of stresses, an increased ability to manage with stress, better performance, less discomfort, and a higher possibility of achieving challenging behavioral adjustments. The sense of the difficulty of implementing an action is characterized as perceived behavioral control. The major distinction between the Theories of Planned Behavior and Reasoned Action is perceived behavior control.

Here,

If elderly nursing home patients lack perceived control, they tend to deteriorate quicker and die sooner than they would otherwise.

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True or false? Information that has been combined with other information to link solely to an individual is considered PII.

Answers

The answer is true in this question statement. PII is any information representation that makes it possible to fairly infer the identification of a person.This definition determines the extent of the regulatory framework.

What is PII?

Any information pertaining to an identifiable individual is considered personal data, often known as personal information or personally identifiable information (PII).

PII is a commonly used acronym in the US, although the term it stands in for has four different frequent variations based on the words personal, personally, identifiable, and identifying.

Not all meanings are equal, and depending on the context and the jurisdiction in which a phrase is used, several definitions may be beneficial for legal purposes.

The phrase "personal data" has a much broader definition data protection regimes, which are largely focused on the General Data Protection Regulation.

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Stores that provide moderate sales assistance because they carry shopping goods about which customers need a moderate level of information are called ________ retailers.
A) self-service
B) full-service
C) off-price
D) limited-service
E) convenience

Answers

Stores that provide moderate sales assistance because they carry shopping goods about which customers need a moderate level of information are called limited-service retailers.

What do limited-service retailers provide ?Retailers are responsible for delivering items from the manufacturer to the consumer. Consumer behavior, seasons, economic situations, geography, and a variety of other factors all have a significant impact on retail sales.There are various types of merchants who use various sales methods and cater to various customer categories. Each one provides a unique experience, sometimes buying straight from a manufacturer and sometimes offering a diverse choice of products.

Who are retailers ?Limited service means limiting the services available to customers due to limited resources, high costs, geographical constraints, and so on. A limited service entity is one that provides few services to customers in one area while also providing full service in another.

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If you carry out the reaction between table salt (NaCl) and lead(II) iodide (PbI2PbI2 ) in 100.0 mL100.0 mL of water, the salt lead(II) iodide will behave similarly to the salts given in the tab named Slightly Soluble Salts.
Enter the formula for the precipitate, without the phase, that will be formed. If no precipitate is formed, simply type "noreaction" in the answer box.
Express your answer as a chemical formula.

Answers

Based on the reaction above the compound that will be formed is PbI2. That is Lead(II) iodide is the precipitate that will be formed.

What is the reaction about?

The reaction between table salt (NaCl) and lead(II) iodide (PbI2) in water can be written as:

NaCl(aq) + PbI2(aq) -> NaI(aq) + PbI2(s)

This is a double displacement reaction, where the cations and anions of the two salts exchange partners. The solubility of the salts depends on the strength of the attraction between the ions and the water molecules. Generally, salts with smaller and more highly charged ions are less soluble than salts with larger and less charged ions.

Therefore, the precipitate can be separated from the solution by filtration or centrifugation. The color of the precipitate is yellow, due to the presence of iodide ions. The amount of the precipitate can be calculated by using the stoichiometry of the reaction and the initial concentrations of the reactants."

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A provision in a whole life policy that allows a policyowner to terminate the policy in return for a reduced paid-up policy of the same type is called a(n)
A) insuring clause
B) payor provision
C) reinstatement provision
D) nonforfeiture provision

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A policy owner terminates the policy in return for a reduced paid-up policy of the same type is called a nonforfeiture provision

What is a nonforfeiture provision?

A nonforfeiture clause is a provision in an insurance policy that states that an insured party may receive full or partial benefits or a partial refund of premiums if the policy lapses due to nonpayment. Nonforfeiture clauses can be found in permanent life insurance, long-term disability insurance, and long-term care insurance policies.

If the payment is reduced then it is considered the nonforfeiture provision so this can be considered as the boon if the policy lapses due to the non-payment  

Hence if the policy lapses due to nonpayment it can be considered as nonforfeiture provision

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The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) differs from the Rorschach inkblot test in that the person taking the TAT is asked to use his or her imagination to:
Select one:
A. tell a complete story about a picture
B. draw a picture based on a story that is read aloud by the examiner
C. write down responses after reading a short story
D. tell a story and draw a picture about it.

Answers

Tell a story and draw a picture about it. The correct answer is option (A).

What is Thematic Apperception?

An example of a projective test is the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT), which asks participants to describe ambiguous events in order to reveal more about their personalities, emotions, and driving forces.

The TAT entails displaying a selection of image cards to participants that feature a variety of ambiguous persons (which may include men, women, and/or children), settings, and scenarios. The TAT is frequently criticised for not being standardised, which refers to the absence of official administration guidelines and a scoring system. Clinicians frequently conduct the exam in a variety of ways. Furthermore, few professionals adopt Murray's intricate grading system; instead, they rely on their own personal interpretation and clinical judgement.

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The correct option is A

. tell a complete story about a picture

What is the The Thematic Apperception Test?

The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) is a projective test that involves showing a person a series of ambiguous pictures and asking him or her to tell a complete story about each one. The story should include what is happening, what the characters are feeling and thinking, and what the outcome will be. The TAT is designed to reveal the person's unconscious motives, conflicts, and personality traits through the themes and patterns of the stories.

The Rorschach inkblot test is another projective test that involves showing a person a series of inkblots and asking him or her to say what they see in them. The Rorschach test is based on the assumption that the person's responses reflect their unconscious thoughts, feelings, and impulses that are projected onto the inkblots.

The main difference between the TAT and the Rorschach test is that the TAT requires the person to use their imagination to create a coherent and meaningful story based on a picture, while the Rorschach test requires the person to interpret an abstract and random stimulus.

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These are features of cardiac muscle fibers except
A. they depend almost exclusively on aerobic respiration.
B. they are rich in glycogen.
C. they have huge mitochondria.
D. they are very rich in myoglobin.
E. they have about the same endurance as skeletal muscle fibers

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All are the features of cardiac muscle fibers except that they have about the same endurance as skeletal muscle fibers.

What is cardiac muscles?

Cardiac muscle makes up the thick middle layer of the heart. It is also known as myocardium, it is one  of three types of muscles in the body. Cardiac muscle is an involuntary striated muscle tissue found only in the heart and is responsible for the ability of the heart to pump blood

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Osteoblasts are immature cells that build bone and carry out the process of bone deposition.

Answers

The statement that, Osteoblasts are immature cells that build bone and carry out the process of bone deposition, is True.

What is bond deposition ?

Bone deposition is the process of adding new bone tissue to the skeleton. It involves the synthesis of organic matrix and the mineralization of the matrix.

Osteoblasts secrete collagen and other proteins that form the organic matrix of bone. They also secrete enzymes that help in the mineralization of the matrix. The mineralization involves the deposition of calcium and phosphate ions into the matrix, forming hydroxyapatite crystals. These crystals give bone its hardness and strength.

Osteoblasts are derived from osteogenic cells, which are stem cells that can differentiate into bone-forming cells. Osteoblasts are found on the surface of bone tissue, where they form a single layer of cuboidal cells. They communicate with each other and with osteocytes, which are mature bone cells, through gap junctions.

Osteoblasts can become trapped in the matrix they secrete and differentiate into osteocytes. Osteocytes maintain the bone tissue and regulate the exchange of nutrients and wastes with the blood. Osteocytes also sense mechanical stress and signal to osteoblasts and osteoclasts, which are bone-resorbing cells, to adjust the bone remodeling process.

Osteoblasts are important for the growth and development of bones, as well as the repair and maintenance of bone tissue. They are regulated by various hormones, such as parathyroid hormone, calcitonin, and growth hormone, as well as by mechanical stimuli, such as exercise and weight-bearing activities.

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Options for this question include:

True False

The modified gap junctions that link the cells and allow the heart to contract as a single unit are the striations found in cardiac muscle cells. Because it is devoid of an ECM entirely, nervous tissue is unusual.

The individual cells that make up the heart muscle are known as cardiomyocytes. The primary function of cardiomyocytes is to contract to generate the pressure needed to pump blood through the circulatory system. The branching architecture and intercalated discs between muscle fibers are specific to the heart muscle. The intercalated discs are angled at a right angle to the muscle fibres and have a dark stain. They are frequently described as bands that are cutting across the muscle fibres. The muscle that encircles the heart is made of cardiac muscle. Unlike skeletal muscles, which move voluntarily to support life, the muscles' purpose is to cause the mechanical motion that pumps blood throughout the rest of the body.

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