The statement that ingested poisoning is usually accidental in adults is false because it more common in case of young children who put things in their mouth without directly knowing about them.
The statement that opioids, sedatives, and barbiturates slow breathing, so ventilatory complications are a concern with such poisonings is true. The statement that when dealing with an absorbed poison, you should flush the skin of the affected area with an alcohol rinse for 15 to 20 minutes false, rather the cleaning of the affected area is done with clear water. The statement that most poisons do not have an antidote is true. Poison is a chemical substance which has the capacity to cause death or cause harms to the organ system of the body.
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is responsible for ensuring that public water systems meet minimum standards for protecting public health?
Environmental Protection Agency is responsible for ensuring that public water systems meet minimum standards for protecting public health.
The Environmental Protection Agency protects people and the environment from significant health risks by funding and conducting research, as well as developing and enforcing environmental regulations. The EPA—a U.S. federal agency designed to protect human and environmental health—was established by President Nixon in December 1970 in response to increased concerns about pollution and its negative externalities.
Environmental protection is the practice of individuals, organizations, and governments protecting the natural environment. Its goals are to conserve natural resources and the existing natural environment, as well as to repair damage and reverse trends where possible.
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while talking with a schizophrenic client, the nurse observes that the client is looking straight ahead, maintains no eye contact, and shows no facial expression, even though the client is telling the nurse about a very emotional episode the client just experienced with a roommate. when describing the client's affect, the nurse documents it as what?
While describing the client's affect, the nurse would document the behavior as it is flat.
Schizophrenia is the mental disbalance due to which the patient perceives reality in the way which does not exist. They tend to create a separate world of their imaginations of their own and may act weird, aggressive or sometimes lonely. This condition is caused due to some past trauma faced by the person. Such people suffer from delusions, hallucinations and disorganized verbal communication. Flat affect is a symptom of other conditions. The nurse must be aware that the clients perceive a others' feelings through their nonverbal communication, such as facial expressions, caress touch and heartfelt voice etc.
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after teaching a group of nursing students about upper gastrointestinal system drugs, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students correctly choose which drug as a gastrointestinal stimulant?
D) Metoclopramide (Reglan). Drugs known as gastrointestinal stimulants promote gastrointestinal smooth muscle motility without purgative effects.
These medications all work to expedite the movement of the gastrointestinal tract's contents despite having various methods of action. Diabetes patients who experience the symptoms of gastroparesis, or a delayed emptying of the stomach, are treated with methoclopramide. It functions by causing the stomach and intestines to contract more often. It eases symptoms like loss of appetite, heartburn, nausea, vomiting, and a post-meal feeling of fullness. The main influences on stomach emptying are brought about by the actions of incretins, mainly GIP, GLP-1, and PYY, as well as the pancreatic, duodenal, and gastric orexigenic hormones motilin, glucagon, and amylin.
The complete question is:
After teaching a group of nursing students about upper gastrointestinal system drugs, the instructor determines that the teaching was successful when the students identify which of the following as a gastrointestinal stimulant?
A) Ranitidine (Zantac)
B) Misoprostol (Cytotec)
C) Omeprazole (Prilosec)
D) Metoclopramide (Reglan)
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a nurse is assessing a client who has a fever, has an infection of a flank incision, and is in severe pain. what type of pulse rate would the client most likely exhibit?
The pulse rate of the client most likely exhibits Tachycardia.
A nurse is someone who is educated to present care to individuals who are unwell or injured. Nurses work with doctors and other health care people to make patients nicely and to preserve their suit and healthy. Nurses also help with end-of-life needs and help another circle of relatives participants with grieving.
The number one role of a nurse is to be a caregiver for patients by way of handling bodily wishes, stopping infection, and treating health situations.
Nurses listen to and understand the concerns of their patients—which is important for evaluating conditions and growing treatment plans.
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a specialized plasmid vector that has an e.coli promoter upstream of a restriction site into which foreign genes can be inserted is known as a...
A specialized plasmid vector that has an E.coli promoter upstream of a restriction site into which foreign genes can be inserted is known as an expression vector.
Plasmids that are used by experimentation for these functions are referred to as vectors. Researchers will insert DNA fragments or genes into a plasmid vector, making a questionable recombinant inclusion. This inclusion will be introduced into a bacteria by method of the method referred to as transformation.
An expression vector, otherwise called an expression construct, is sometimes a inclusion or virus designed for gene expression in cells. The vector is employed to introduce a particular gene into a target cell, and might pirate the cell's mechanism for protein synthesis to supply the protein encoded by the gene.
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a client is scheduled for a colonoscopy in the morning. what laxative would the nurse expect to be prescribed the evening before the procedure?
Polyethylene glycol-electrolyte solution would be prescribed in evening before the procedure of colonoscopy in the morning.
A colonoscopy is a test performed to check for abnormalities in the large intestine (colon) and rectum, such as enlarged, irritating tissues, polyps, or cancer. A long, flexible tube called a colonoscope is introduced into the rectum during a colonoscopy.
The nurse should assess for the potential cause of the patient's constipation and appropriately individualize the treatment and patient education. The nurse should document an abdominal assessment that includes discomfort, distention, and decreased bowel sounds.
Hence, before a colonoscopy, the colon (large intestine) is emptied with polyethylene glycol-electrolyte solution (PEG-ES).
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a nurse is providing care for a patient whose pattern of laboratory testing reveals longstanding hypocalcemia. what other laboratory result is most consistent with this finding?
The nurse is providing care for a patient whose pattern of laboratory testing reveals long standing hypocalcemia. An elevated parathyroid hormone level test will reveal most consistent with the same finding.
In primary hyperparathyroidism, the parathyroid glands expand, which results in an overproduction of parathyroid hormone. This results in erratic calcium levels in the blood, which can lead to a number of medical issues. PTH or vitamin D problems are the most frequent causes of low serum calcium values. A reduction in serum ionized calcium due to calcium binding in the vascular space or calcium deposition in tissues, as can happen with hyperphosphatemia, are two other reasons of hypocalcemia.
The complete question is:
A nurse is providing care for a patient whose pattern of laboratory testing reveals longstanding hypocalcemia. What other laboratory result is most consistent with this finding?
A) An elevated parathyroid hormone level
B) An increased calcitonin level
C) An elevated potassium level
D) A decreased vitamin D level
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a nurse teaches a client and care partner about cholinesterase inhibitors. which statement will the nurse include in the teaching?
Nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and loss of appetite can be prevented or reduced by starting with a low dose.
When administering medications to older adults, it is imperative to start with lower doses and increase the doses slowly. Exelon is less likely to interact with other drugs and may be safer and better tolerated in people. It will continue and other medications may be added. The effectiveness of cholinesterase inhibitors is diminished significantly if it is stopped and then restarted
Cholinesterase inhibitors work by slowing the breakdown of acetylcholine. They are used to treat Alzheimer's and dementia symptoms. This activity discusses the indications, mechanism of action, and contraindications for cholinesterase inhibitors in the treatment of dementia disorders, as well as other uses in other specialties. This activity will also highlight the mechanism of action, adverse event profile, and other important factors.
They are a class of drugs that inhibit the normal breakdown of acetylcholine (ACh) into acetate and choline, thereby increasing the levels and duration of acetylcholine action in the central and peripheral nervous systems. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors are used for a variety of purposes. Their most common application is in the treatment of neurodegenerative diseases such as Alzheimer's, Parkinson's, and Lewy body dementia.
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when a client with obstructive pulmonary disease has a new prescription for daily low dose prednisone, which information will the nurse include when teaching this client
The information the nurse will include when teaching this client would be Report any dark stools to the health care provider.
Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, or COPD, is a set of disorders that produce airflow obstruction and breathing difficulties. Emphysema and chronic bronchitis are examples. COPD makes it difficult for the 16 million Americans who suffer from the disease to breathe.
Smoking is the leading cause of COPD, accounting for around 9 out of every 10 cases. Smoke contains toxic compounds that can affect the lining of the lungs and airways. Stopping smoking can help keep COPD from worsening.
Short-acting bronchodilator inhalers are the initial line of treatment for most persons with COPD. Bronchodilators are medications that relax and enlarge your airways, making breathing easier.
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a client is to receive a narcotic that will be applied transdermally. the nurse identifies this as which agent?
The nurse identifies this as Fentanyl.
Fentanyl is available in the form of a transdermal patch. Fentanyl, also known as fentanil, is a highly potent synthetic opioid used to treat pain. Fentanyl is used for anesthesia in conjunction with other drugs. It is also used illegally as a recreational drug, sometimes in combination with heroin, cocaine, benzodiazepines, or methamphetamine.
Fentanyl works by binding to opioid receptors in the body, which are located in areas of the brain that control pain and emotions. Extreme happiness, drowsiness, nausea, confusion, constipation, sedation, tolerance, addiction, respiratory depression and arrest, unconsciousness, coma, and death are some of its side effects.
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a client who has suffered a myocardial infarction is prescribed a laxative to help prevent straining during defecation. which medication would the nurse expect to administer?
According to question, Psyllium is prescribed a laxative to help prevent straining during defecation .
The nurse must identify any potential causes of the patient's constipation and then individually tailor the patient's therapy and education. An abdominal examination that takes into account discomfort, distention, and diminished bowel sounds should be recorded by the nurse.
Drinking plenty of fluids when using bulk-forming laxatives is essential for their effective use and to avoid intestinal blockage. Each dose should be accompanied by the consumption of a full glass (8 ounces) or more of cool water or fruit juice. The laxative will receive enough liquid as a result to work as intended.
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a family brings the client to the emergency department in an unconscious state with a head injury. the client requires surgery to remove a blood clot. what would be the appropriate nursing intervention in keeping with the policy of informed consent prior to a surgical procedure?
In accordance with the policy of informed consent prior to a surgical procedure, the nurse should ensure that the patient's family signs the consent form for the patient who needs surgery to eliminate the blood clot.
What exactly is "informed consent"?Informed consent is a communication process that occurs between you and your health care practitioner and typically results in agreement or authorization for care, treatment, or services. Before surgeries and treatments, the patient is entitled to obtain information and ask questions. The patient will be asked to confirm that they comprehend the purpose of the surgical process and that they grant their consent for the procedure. Although this may seem like a formality, it ought to be taken seriously.
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which type of research study represent the nurse designing and conducting an informational health campaign .
Evaluation research is the type of research study that represents the nurse designing and conducting an informational health campaign.
A program, practice, or policy's effectiveness is tested through evaluation research. The nurse is conducting a health education campaign and tracking the campaign's results, which suggests that she is performing an evaluation.
A sort of disciplined and methodical inquiry known as evaluation research is carried out to arrive at an assessment or appraisal of a product, program, practice, activity, or system with the aim of delivering data that will be useful in decision-making.
Determining whether a method has succeeded in achieving a goal or producing the intended outcomes is the major goal of an evaluation study. The process of developing a product includes an evaluation study in its entirety.
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a patient who has experienced previous jaw and face trauma now reports difficulty tasting with the tip of her tongue. which cranial nerve was likely damaged in that injury?
That injury most certainly caused facial nerve damage. The facial nerves branch and give rise to the chorda tympani, which supplies sensory supply to the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.
The facial nerve connects your brain to particular muscles of your face. It controls the muscles that allow you to produce expressions like as raising a brow, smiling, or frowning. This nerve is also in charge of the majority of your tongue's taste experiences.
From top to bottom, the branches are: frontal (or temporal), zygomatic, buccal, marginal mandibular, and cervical. Each of these branches offers input to a set of face expression muscles. The locations innervated by each branch are listed below in rough order. The facial nerve innervates the facial muscles that are responsible for facial expression, as well as the glands of the oral cavity and the lacrimal gland, as well as the anterior two-thirds of the tongue.
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after receiving report from the night shift charge nurse, which activities should the nurse anticipate completing during the first hour? (select all that apply. one, some, or all options may be correct.)
After receiving a report from the charge nurse during the night shift, Delegating duties to UAPs for the day is a charge nurse task that has to be finished during the first hour of the shift in order to utilize unit staff resources effectively.
Tasks that must be verified before assignment and delegation.(During the first few hours of the shift, the charge nurse should first identify the responsibilities that need to be assigned and delegated.)Clients should be assigned to staff nurses based on acuity.(To make the most use of the unit's staff resources, charge nurses must make client assignments before or within the first hour of the shift.)Examine the materials and equipment for the coding cart.
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the program supplies vouchers for purchasing supplement foods and provides nutrition education for low-income and at-risk pregnancy or lactating women and for their at-risk young children. a. food stamps b. wic c. meals on wheels d. frc
The program WIC supplies vouchers for purchasing supplement foods and provides nutrition education for low-income and at-risk pregnancy or lactating women and for their at-risk young children.
Thus, the correct answer is B.
What is the WIC program?WIC stands for women, infants, and children. WIC attempts to safeguard the healthcare of low-income women, infants, and children up to the age of five who are at risk of malnutrition by providing nutritious meals to supplement diets, education on healthy food, and referrals to health care. The WIC program serves pregnant women, breastfeeding women, postpartum mothers who aren't nursing, infants, toddlers, and children up to the age of five.
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which strategy would the nurse use for a patient who has been withdrawn and not interested in activities of daily living
The nurse would Provide audiobooks.
Cognitive traits are predispositions to seek stimulation in order to arouse the mind, whereas sensory traits are predispositions to seek stimulation in order to arouse the senses.
The primary distinction between cognition and perception is that cognition is the mental process of acquiring knowledge and understanding via thought, experience, and the senses, whereas perception is the ability to see, hear, or become aware of something via the senses.
A talking book (or audiobook) is a recording of a book or other work being read aloud. A reading of the entire text is referred to as "unabridged," whereas readings of shorter versions are referred to as "abridgements." Since the 1930s, spoken audio has been available in schools, public libraries, and, to a lesser extent, music stores. Prior to the age of cassettes, compact discs, and downloadable audio, many spoken word albums were created, often of poetry and plays rather than books. It wasn't until the 1980s that the medium drew the attention of book retailers, and then they began displaying audiobooks on bookshelves rather than in separate displays.
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the nurse is collecting a nursing history from a preoperative client who is to receive local anesthesia. while taking the admission history, the client reports an allergy to lidocaine. what is the nurse's priority action?
the nurse's first priority move Let the anesthesiologist know.
Interventions with a religious or existential focus, such as helping people discover life's meaning and purpose are known as spiritual interventions. Psychotherapy, meaning-focused meditation, and spiritual counseling are a few examples of spiritual therapies. The referral, prayer, active listening, facilitation & validation of clients' thoughts and ideas, communicating acceptance, and imparting hope were the most commonly mentioned nursing interventions. Recognize the patient's by the nurse pain and take action to reduce it by being compassionate. Encourage prayer that is introspective as a way to overcome current sorrow and suffering. Let the sufferer express their fear and fury verbally. Aid the patient in overcoming remorse and instilling hope (Villagomeza, 2005).
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the nurse is preparing to care for a dying client and several family members are at the clients bedside. which therapeutic technique should the nurse use when communicating with the family
-3).Encourage expression of feelings, concerns, and fears.-5).Touch and hold the client's or family member's hand if appropriate. therapeutic technique should the nurse use when communicating with the family, the nurse is preparing to care for a dying client and several family members are at the clients bedside.
The goal of therapeutic technique is to emphasise the patients' physical, mental, and emotional well. While retaining a certain degree of professional detachment and impartiality, nurses provide patients assistance and information. In nursing, therapeutic communication is a face-to-face procedure where a nurse employs communication techniques to promote a patient's sense of wellbeing. Major techniques that use Behavior Theory include Social Learning Theory, Applied Behavior Analysis, and Exposure Therapy. With psychiatric conditions including obsessive-compulsive disorder, phobias, and anxiety, this method is very useful.
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the nurse is planning care for the spiritual needs of a patient who has been newly diagnosed with a chronic illness. which are appropriate nursing interventions for the spiritual care of this patient? (select all that apply.)
shared smiles, shared sobs, Praying beside the sick while also listening to them is the nursing interventions for the spiritual care of this patient by nurse.
Interventions with a religious or existential focus, such as helping people discover life's meaning and purpose are known as spiritual interventions. Psychotherapy, meaning-focused meditation, and spiritual counseling are a few examples of spiritual therapies. The recommendation, prayer, active listening, facilitation & validation of clients' feelings and ideas, communicating acceptance, and imparting hope were the most commonly mentioned nursing interventions. A nurse recognize the patient's pain and take action to reduce it by being compassionate. Encourage prayer that is introspective as a way to overcome current sorrow and suffering. Let the sufferer express their fear and fury verbally. Aid the patient in overcoming remorse and instilling hope (Villagomeza, 2005).
(The nurse is assessing spiritual needs for a patient who has been newly diagnosed with a chronic illness. Which are appropriate nursing interventions for the spiritual care of this patient?
Select all that apply.
A. Shared laughter
B. Shared tears
C. Listening to the patient
D. Administering medication
E. Praying with the patient
F. Ambulating the patient)
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women have longer life expectancies than men and live with more non-fatal chronic diseases than men. true or false?
Women have longer life expectancies than men and live with more non-fatal chronic diseases than men. This statement is True.
Noncommunicable diseases (NCDs) such as heart disease, cancer, chronic respiratory disease, and diabetes are the leading causes of death worldwide and are a growing global health concern.
Chronic diseases, such as heart disease, cancer, diabetes, stroke, and arthritis, are the leading causes of disability and death in New York and across the country.
Chronic diseases are defined broadly as conditions that last a year or more and necessitate ongoing medical attention, limit daily activities, or both. They are also major contributors to the country's $4.1 trillion in annual health-care costs.
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dr. hollis conducted a clinical interview of his client and gave the client a number of response inventories to complete. he provided both categorical and dimensional information when diagnosing the client. what information did he likely provide?
When diagnosing his patient, Dr. Hollis conducted a clinical interview and gave the patient a number of response inventories to complete. He most likely provided the category of the disorder and severity rating.
A clinical diagnostic interview is another reliable method of determining the extent of and/or diagnosing mental illness (CDI). The SCID consists of a set of standardised questions, whereas CDIs require a dialogue or narrative between the mental health practitioner and the patient. A diagnosis is the process of determining what is causing a patient's symptoms. A doctor will interview the patient, conduct a physical exam, and weigh the results of other diagnostic tests in order to make a diagnosis. The best course of action can be decided upon once a diagnosis has been made.
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a client is receiving home health services after having a stroke and being hospitalized. after a thorough assessment of the home environment and the client, what would indicate to the nurse that there is an impairment in the client's home management?
A client with a stroke is receiving home health services. The nurse suspects that there is an impairment in the client’s home management when: the client’s caregiver is absent whenever the nurse visits and the client is often left alone.
How to properly assist a client with a stroke at home?As a caregiver, it is really important to always accompany the client. They could not be left alone as a stroke attack may happen at any time. There are some tips to do as a caregiver:
Make sure the environment is safe and clear. Place all items that could potentially be dangerous such as sharp objects or cleaning chemicals in a secured place.Offer help and encourage the client to accept the help.Help prevent injuries that may result from the client’s inability to determine distance and depths.Hence, we can conclude that the client’s home management is impaired when they left the client alone most of the time.
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why is a question about the amount of radiation a patient will receive during a specific x-ray procedure difficult to answer
1) because the recieved dose in X ray is measured in a number of different units. 2) because scientific units for radiation dose are not comprehensible by the patient.
The received dose is specified in a number of different units of measure, and the scientific units for radiation dose are typically not understandable by a patient. As a result, it may be challenging to provide an accurate response to a question about the amount of radiation a patient may receive during a specific x-ray procedure. Everyone is exposed to radiation from safe sources including mobile phones, microwaves, radon, and cosmic rays. Monitoring of exposure is necessary because higher-energy short-wave radiation from numerous occupational sources can disrupt and infiltrate live cells, increasing the risk of cancer. The type and complexity of the surgery, the patient, any past radiation exposure, the operator, and the fluoroscopic equipment are only a few of the variables that might affect the radiation dosage to the patient.
The complete question is:
Why is a question about the amount of radiation a patient will receive during a specific x-ray procedure difficult to answer?
1) because the recieved dose is measured in a number of different units
2) because scientific units for radiation dose are not comprehensible by the patient
3) because the patient should not receive any information about radiation dose.
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in the stages of the illness experience developed by edward a. suchman, in which stage is the role of the patient given up?
Illness behavior, according to Edward A. Suchman, is divided into five stages: symptom experience, assumption of a sick role, medical care contact, dependent patient, as well as recovery or rehabilitation.
Edward A. Suchman was an American sociologist who specialized in military organization studies, social behavior measurement, working conditions, and public health. He is best known as a major pioneer of the modern accountability movement, particularly the methodology of evaluation research. Suchman was a Sociology Professor at the University of Pittsburgh, Cornell University, Harvard University, and Columbia University, where he received his Ph.D. During WWII, he worked as a Research Associate for the United States. He worked in the War Department Research Branch, conducting sociological studies on military personnel.
He considered experimental design with a control group to be the most powerful form of evaluation research, but he also recognized that classic experiments weren't always possible and generally preferred whatever method was most suitable for the circumstances of the a particular evaluation.
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during a 26-week gestation prenatal exam, a client reports occasional dizziness...what intervention is best for the nurse to recommend to this client? a. elevate the head with two pillows while sleeping b. lie on the left or right side when sleeping or resting. c. increase intake of foods that are high in iron d. decrease the amount of carbohydrates in the diet.
Correct option is A. While sleeping, raise the head using two pillows.
How long is the gestation period?The time during which an embryo, and eventually a fetus, develops inside viviparous animals is known as the gestational period. Although certain non-mammals also experience it, it is usual for mammals.
Trimesters are used to categorize pregnancies; the first trimester lasts from week one to week twelve. From week 13 through the end of week 26, the second trimester is comprised. Week 27 of the pregnancy till the end of the third trimester.
Pregnancy's third trimester can be taxing and painful. Here are some tips for easing symptoms as well as anxiety when your due date draws near. Pregnancy's third trimester can be emotionally and physically taxing. The position and size of your infant could make it hard for you to get comfortable.
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one way ____ occurs when one is physically present but unable to participate in any meaningful way in family interactions, as when someone is in advanced stages of dementia.
One way Ambiguous loss occurs when one is physically present but unable to participate in any meaningful way in family interactions, as when someone is in advanced stages of dementia.
Dementia isn't always a selected disease but is alternatively a preferred term for the impaired potential to don't forget, assume, or make decisions that interferes with doing ordinary sports. Alzheimer's sickness is the maximum not unusual sort of dementia. although dementia broadly speaking affects older adults, it isn't a part of normal ageing.
Dementia is due to harm to or loss of nerve cells and their connections in the brain. relying on the area of the mind it truly is damaged, dementia can have an effect on people in a different way and cause one of a kind symptoms.
Dementia is more not unusual in humans over the age of 65, however in some cases, it can additionally have an effect on human beings of their 30s, 40s, or 50s. With remedy and early analysis, you'll be capable of sluggish down the development of dementia and hold mental function for an extended time frame.
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question at position 17 the nurse is caring for a 71-year-old client who experienced a humeral fracture in a fall. the client is receiving an opioid for pain control. which principle of pain management for an older adult should the nurse apply?
A 71-year-old customer who fell and fractured his humerus is being cared for by the nurse. For pain management, the client is given an opioid. Pain management is based on a personalized, balanced approach.
Since there is no one-size-fits-all method to treating pain, the American Society for Pain Management Nursing (ASPMN) states that "pain management should be administered with a customized, balanced approach." In order to relieve their patients' pain, pain management nurses must employ a variety of therapeutic methods. Even while clients could require more and higher doses of opioids, they are not addicted. A senior citizen who fell and fractured her humerus has been receiving periodic pain assessments from the nurse. For a client this age, use the nursing procedure for pain treatment.
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a client asks the nurse why the health care provider prescribed orlistat instead of another weight-loss drug. the nurse explains that an advantage of orlistat over other weight-loss products is:
The nurse says that lowering blood cholesterol levels is one benefit of orlistat over other weight-loss medications.
High-density lipoprotein (HDL), low-density lipoprotein (LDL), and triglyceride levels in a person's blood make up their serum cholesterol level. Triglycerides are a particular kind of fat that contain cholesterol. A person's risk of contracting diseases like heart disease can be determined by their serum cholesterol level.
If there is an excessive amount of cholesterol in circulation, it may combine with other chemicals to produce deposits (plaques) that build up on the artery walls. An artery may become clogged or constricted as a result of plaque. A blood clot may develop if a plaque ruptures. Blood clots and plaques can lower an artery's blood flow.
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if a patient has a creatinine clearance of 90 ml/min, a urine flow rate of 1 ml/min, a plasma k concentration of 4 meq/l, and a urine k concentration of 60 meq/l, what is the approximate rate of k excretion?
0.06 meq/min will be the approximate rate of k+ excretion at creatinine clearance of 90 ml/min, a urine flow rate of 1 ml/min.
let given,
creatinine clearance = 90 ml/min
urine flow rate = 1 ml/min
= 0.001 L/min
plasma k concentration = 4 meq/l
urine k concentration = 60 meq/l
K+ excretion rate = urine K+ concentration × urine flow rate
= 60 meq/l x 0.001 L/min
= 0.06 meq/min.
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