help help exponents help

Answer:

LCM of (4800, 1350, 2646) = 2116800

Step-by-step explanation:

Factorización prima de los números:

4800 = 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 5 × 5

1350 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 5 × 5

2646 = 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 7 × 7

MCM (4800, 1350, 2646)

2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 2 × 3 × 3 × 3 × 5 × 5 × 7 × 7

2116800

MCM de (4800, 1350, 2646) = 2116800

Answer:

-13 + 4

Step-by-step explanation:

For the sum to be negative, the absolute value of the negative integer has to be 9 more than the positive integer. There are an infinite number of equations, but here is one:

-13 + 4

Answer:

50 pounds

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A = 48

Step-by-step explanation:

In this equation, we can factor out the expression [tex](\frac{1}{7} )^x[/tex]. If we do so, the expression becomes:

[tex](\frac{1}{7})^x((\frac{1}{7})^{-2} - 1)[/tex]

We can simplify to get:

[tex](\frac{1}{7} )^x(49 - 1)[/tex]

and get:

[tex]48*(\frac{1}{7})^x[/tex]

Therefore, A = 48

Answer:

[tex]\sigma (y_1-y_2)=39[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Urn 1 :2 Red, 3 Yellow

Urn 2:3 Red, 7 Yellow

Sample 1 [tex]n_1=75\ balls[/tex]

Sample 2 [tex]n_2=100\ balls[/tex]

Generally the Probability of Red ball drawn is mathematically given by

For Urn 1

[tex]P(R)_1=\frac{2}{5}[/tex]

[tex]P(R)_1=0.4[/tex]

For Urn 2

[tex]P(R)_1=\frac{3}{10}[/tex]

[tex]P(R)_1=0.3[/tex]

Generally the equation for Variance of two independent variables [tex]\sigma (y_1-y_2)[/tex] is mathematically given by

 [tex]\sigma (y_1-y_2)=\sigma y_2 +(-1)^2 \sigma(x_1)[/tex]

    Where red balls drawn from both Urn is Modeled

    [tex]Urn_1\ is\ Modeled\ as (n_1=75,p_1=0.4)[/tex]

   [tex]Urn_2\ is\ Modeled\ as\ (n_2=100,p_2=0.3)[/tex]

 [tex]\sigma (y_1-y_2)=n_2 p_2(1_p_2)+n_1*p_1(1-p_1)[/tex]

 [tex]\sigma (y_1-y_2)=100*0.3(1-0.3)+75*0.4(1-0.4)[/tex]

 [tex]\sigma (y_1-y_2)=39[/tex]

Therefore the variance of the random variable defined as the number of red balls is

 [tex]\sigma (y_1-y_2)=39[/tex]

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

C. c. c.c.c.cc.c.c.

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

A

Step-by-step explanation:

A shows a counterclockwise 90° rotation, so it is the correct answer.

B shows a reflection.

C shows a translation.

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

look for another phone company then

Answer:

Heyaa!! My name is Pinky and im here to tell you that the answer is..

Step-by-step explanation:

!!(b)  P( x < 4)  =     ( 5 + 10 + 2 + 9 )  / ( 5 + 10 + 2 + 9 + 33 + 12 + 15 + 3 + 1 ) =  13/45!!

!!(c)  P(x  = 6)  =  15 / (5 + 10 + 2 + 9 + 33 + 12 + 15 + 3 + 1)  =  1/6!!

!!(d) P( x ≥ 5 ) =  (12+ 15 + 3 + 1) /  (5 + 10 + 2 + 9 + 33 + 12 + 15 + 3 + 1) =  7/30!!

Have and Amazing Day now!!

                                                  ~Pinky~

Step-by-step explanation:

use an interest calculator it is going to be much easier

I believe its $6986.25

https://www.bankrate.com/calculators/savings/simple-savings-calculator.aspx

Answer:

1288 c m 3

Step-by-step explanation:

To work out volume, you just do the simple calculation of height x width x length. So what we need to do here is 6 x 7.5 x 22.9 =  

1212.5 c m 3  .

The decimal is a 5 so that is rounded up to give the nearest meter hence the answer to the question is  

1288 c m 3  .

Answer:

At a small savings and loan company, you have to deal with your customers being victims of identity theft. This happens unpredictably to one of your customers once every 9 weeks; and no incident seems to have any connection to any other incident.

Step-by-step explanation:

The probability that you will have to deal with no more than 4 incidents of identity theft in the next year is 30.08 %

What is a Binomial Distribution?

The binomial distribution is a type of probability distribution that predicts the likelihood of obtaining one of two outcomes given a set of inputs. It summarizes the number of tries where each trial has the equal chance of producing the same result.

The formula for Binomial Distribution is given by

P ( x ) = [ n! / ( n - x )! x! ] pˣqⁿ⁻ˣ  

where

n = number of trials

x = number of successes

p = probability of getting a success in one trial

q = probability of getting a failure in one trial

q = 1 - p

Given data ,

Let the probability that you will have to deal with no more than 4 incidents be P ( x ≤ 4 )

Now , the success is one of your customers once every 9 weeks

So , p = 1/9

q = 1 - p = 8/9

x = 4

Number of trials n = 52 weeks

And , the probability that you will have to deal with no more than 4 incidents be P ( x ≤ 4 ) is

P ( x ≤ 4 ) = [ n! / ( n - x )! x! ] pˣqⁿ⁻ˣ  

Substituting the values in the equation , we get

P ( x ≤ 4 ) = [ 52! / ( 48 )! 4! ] ( 1/9 )⁴( 8/9 )⁴⁸

On simplifying the equation , we get

P ( x ≤ 4 ) = 0.3008

P ( x ≤ 4 ) = 30.08 %

Therefore , the value of P ( x ≤ 4 ) is 30.08 %

Hence , the probability of no more than 4 incidents is 30.08 %

To learn more about binomial distribution click :

https://brainly.com/question/29350029

#SPJ2

Answer:

D. 8​

Step-by-step explanation:

y varies jointly as x and z

y = k(xz)

-------------------------

Find k, the constant of variation

y = 12 when x = -2 and z=3

12 = k(-2 * 3)

12 = k(-6)

k = -2

-------------------------

find y when x is 4 and z is -1

using k = -2

y = -2(4 * -1)

y = -2(-4)

y = 8

Answer:

X= 1

Y= -3

Factor and set each factor equal to 0

Answer:

yep that is correct!

Step-by-step explanation:

Theorem of Pythagoras

hopefully the picture is clear and understandable!

:)

9514 1404 393

Answer:

  3/8 pizza

Step-by-step explanation:

If 1/4 of the 4/4 of the pizza was gone, 3/4 remained. When that is split in half, each half is (3/4)(1/2) = 3/8 of the pizza.

Each gets 3/8 of the pizza.

Answer:

4

Step-by-step explanation:

We know ,

Slope = difference of y co ordinate / difference of x coordinate

=> m = -8+4/-3+2

=> m = -4/-1

=> m = 4

Answer:

increasing

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: $9

Step-by-step explanation:  Rounding $9.49 to the nearest dollar consider the tenths’ value of $9.49. Which is 4 and less than 5. Therefore, we have to round the amount down: the dollar ones place value of $9.49, $9, remains $9, and the decimal point and all digits (.49) are removed.

Answer:

80.45 miles

Step-by-step explanation:

Divide and multiply

Answer:

10 bc 9 • 10 = 90

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer: A’ (1, 3)

Step-by-step explanation:

Reflecting in the y-axis will only reverse the x values

Answer:

$58.23

Step-by-step explanation:

Let's say y is her net deposit. The equation you would want to use is y = 56.13 + 22.10 - 20.

Answer:

1 hour 45 minutes

Step-by-step explanation:

Time taken to cover a distance of 2 miles = 30 minutes.

Time required to cover 1 mile = 30/2 = 15 minutes.

Time required to cover 7 miles = 15×7

= 105 minutes or 1 hour and 45 minutes.