for the world as a whole, about how many people suffer from chronic hunger that leaves them less able to work and places them at high risk of disease?

Answers

Answer 1

Close to 1 billion people suffer from chronic hunger that leaves them less able to work and places them at high risk of disease.

A disease is a particular atypical condition that negatively affects the structure or feature of all or part of an organism, and that isn't without delay because of any external injury. Diseases are regularly recognized to be medical conditions that are associated with particular symptoms and signs and symptoms.

There are four foremost forms of the disease: infectious disease, deficiency disease, hereditary disease(inclusive of both genetic illnesses and non-genetic hereditary diseases), and physiological disease.

Infectious disease is a result of living organisms like viruses and bacteria. described as contagious, they can be exceeded from character to character thru body secretions, insects, or other manners.

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a client who has had abdominal surgery develops an infection in the wound while still hospitalized. which precautions are implemented by the nurse to prevent the spread of infection?

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Following open or laparoscopic abdominal surgery, activity Following abdominal surgery, there are a few precautions that are mentioned below.

I advise staying away from any exerting activities, such as pushing, tugging, and leaping. To prevent constipation, consume a high-fiber diet or use stool softeners to reduce straining during bowel motions. Typically, there are no further limitations. You may consume your typical diet. Try bland, low-fat items such plain rice, grilled chicken, bread, and yogurt if your stomach is disturbed. The greatest exercise after abdominal surgery is to try to walk about the home for at least 15 minutes in the morning and in the evening.

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Value: 1
When caring for a resident, it is best to avoid the use of restraints whenever possible. If a restraint is ordered and
must be used, which practice is not recommended?
O a. Observe the resident frequently.
O b. Maintain a calm environment.
O c. Approach care with a gentleness, kindness and respect.
O d. Determine effectiveness by testing out a different restraint on the resident.

Answers

The weird option that sounds is the statement number 4. Option 4 is the correct answer.

What is the best thing that is done in this situation ?

In this situation the best things that is done to keep calm and handle the situation peacefully.

Observe the resident again and again to check the response that is given by the body so that a problem has not occured in the fractions of the time. Maintaining a calm and peaceful environment is very important as the haste makes up the waste.

Approach care with a gentleness, kindness and respect to avoid any kind of panic situations that can happen.  Determine effectiveness by testing out a different restraint on the resident sounds wrong because it is not wise to directly experiment without having much of the ideas.

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a client has suffered a deep partial-thickness burn to the right arm from a high-voltage source of energy that was not turned off while working on it. what is the priority nursing intervention in the acute phase of care?

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The priority nursing intervention for a client that suffered a deep partial-thickness burn to the right arm from a high-voltage energy source is using a cardiac monitor for at least 24 hours to anticipate potential cardiac dysrhythmias.

A client that suffered electrical burns based on energy that has potential damage to the heart should be monitored using a cardiac monitor for at least the first 24 hours. It's because cardiac dysrhythmias may occur as a result of the electrical burn.

Cardiac dysrhythmias is the term for an irregular heartbeat. It occurs when the electrical signals that coordinate heartbeats don't work properly, making it too fast, too slow, or irregularly beating. If not treated properly, it may pose a danger to the victim, causing cardiac arrest or stroke.

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which nursing diagnosis is appropriate for the client with a new ileal conduit? select all that apply. deficient knowledge: management of urinary diversion risk for impaired skin integrity urinary retention disturbed body image chronic pain

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The nursing diagnoses which are appropriate for the client with a new ileal conduit- Deficient knowledge: management of urinary diversion, Disturbed body image, Risk for impaired skin integrity

During an ileal conduit procedure, a surgeon creates a new tube from a piece of the intestine that allows the kidneys to drain and urine to exit the body through a small opening called a stoma.

Deficient knowledge, disturbed body image, and risk for impaired skin integrity are expected problems for the client with a new ileal conduit. Urinary retention and chronic pain are not expected client problems.

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a community health nurse has recently become involved in surveillance. which of the following describes the activity this nurse is mostly likely involved with? group of answer choices collecting information about occurrence of measles advocating for changes in the national disease reporting requirements educating clients about influenza immunizations evaluating the effectiveness of an hiv/aids prevention program

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b. Collecting information about occurrence of measles. Due to the measles virus, measles is a contagious illness that spreads quickly.

Measles transmitting droplets are released into the air when a person coughs, sneezes, or speaks, where they might be inhaled by others. For almost an hour, the contagious droplets might linger in the air. In all age groups, the measles may be dangerous. But certain demographics are more vulnerable to problems from measles: children under the age of five. adults who are older than 20. Every nation in the globe has measles. In nations without vaccination systems, measles outbreaks happen every two to five years. Twenty to thirty million people worldwide contract the measles each year, and one million of those people die.

The complete question is:

A community health nurse has recently become involved in surveillance. Which of the following describes the situation that the nurse is in?

a. Educating clients about influenza immunizations

b. Collecting information about occurrence of measles

c. Evaluating the effectiveness of an HIV/AIDS prevention program

d. Advocating for changes in the national disease reporting requirements

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which response would the nurse make to a confused patient who is hearing voices that the food is poisoned

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"I'll leave your tray here. I am available if you need anything else."

A clinically significant disturbance in an individual's cognition, emotional regulation, or behavior characterizes a mental disorder. It is frequently associated with distress or impairment in critical areas of functioning. There are numerous types of mental disorders.

SMI is a more severe subset of mental illnesses; it is defined as one or more mental, behavioral, or emotional disorder(s) resulting in serious functional impairment, which significantly interferes with or limits one or more major life activities (NIMH).

Most scientists believe that mental illnesses are caused by problems with neuron communication in the brain (neurotransmission). Individuals suffering from depression, for example, have lower levels of the neurotransmitter serotonin. This discovery resulted in the development of specific medications for the illness.

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the nurse is encouraging the client with recurrent urinary tract infections to increase fluid intake to 8 large glasses of fluids daily. which beverage would the nurse discourage for this client? milk at lunch fruit juice midmorning coffee in the morning ginger ale at dinner time

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The nurse would advise against this patient drinking coffee in the morning because she is urging the patient with recurrent UTIs to boost fluid consumption to 8 large glasses each day.

Roasted coffee beans are used to make the beverage coffee. Because of its high caffeine content, coffee, which is darkly coloured, bitter, and slightly acidic, has a stimulating effect on people. It is the most consumed hot beverage worldwide. Unroasted green coffee beans are made by separating the seeds from the Coffea plant's fruits. Urinary tract infection-causing patient frequently enter the bladder through the urethra. However, the blood or lymphatic systems might potentially become infected.

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the nurse is preparing to administer an antidiarrheal to a client. the nurse will question this order if which organism is documented on the stool sample report? select all that apply.

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The nurse is preparing to administer an antidiarrheal to a client. The nurse will question this order if which organism is documented on the stool sample report i.e. Salmonella, Escherichia coli, Shigella etc.

Antidiarrheal is defined as having three or more watery, loose, or easily moving bowel movements each day. It frequently lasts for a few days and might cause dehydration due to fluid loss. The first signs of dehydration are typically irritation and a lack of the customary stretchiness of the skin. As it gets worse, this may cause less urine production, skin discoloration, a quick heartbeat, and a reduction in responsiveness. However, among infants who are exclusively, loose but non-watery feces are typical. The most common cause of this disease is gastroenteritis, an intestinal infection brought on by a virus, bacteria, or parasite. People typically contract these diseases from infected people or from them directly through contaminated food or drink. There are three different types of diarrhea: persistent diarrhea, short-term watery diarrhea, and long-term bloody diarrhea (lasting more than two weeks, which can be either watery or bloody).

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the health care provider has prescribed ranitidine for a hospitalized client on a unit. prior to administering the drug for the first time, which adverse effects should the nurse mention to the client?

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The health care provider has prescribed ranitidine for a hospitalized client on a unit. prior to administering the drug for the first time, adverse effects such as headache should be mentioned by the nurse to the client.

Adverse effects or side effects are unpleasant side effects that may be brought on by a medicine. The severity of side effects might range from mild inconveniences like a runny nose to potentially fatal situations like a heart attack or liver damage. A prescription medication called ranitidine is used to treat stomach and intestinal ulcers as well as to stop them from returning after they have healed. Additionally, erosive esophagitis, gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), and Zollinger-Ellison syndrome are among the stomach and throat conditions that can be treated with ranitidine. It works by reducing the amount of acid your stomach generates. It relieves symptoms such a dry cough, heartburn, stomach pain, and swallowing issues. Ranitidine belongs to a class of drugs.

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those with clinical manifestations for iron-deficiency anemia often present with pallor of the skin and mucous membranes, fatigue, weakness, lightheadedness, breathlessness, palpitations, headache, tachycardia, and syncope. what is the cause of these manifestations?

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The cause of manifestations of pale skin and mucous membranes, fatigue, weakness, lightheadedness, shortness of breath, palpitations, headaches, tachycardia, and syncope are symptoms of anemia.

What is anemia?

Anemia is a condition when the body experiences a decrease or the number of red blood cells is below the normal range. This happens due to a lack of hemoglobin (an iron-rich protein) that affects the production of red blood cells.

Anemia can occur temporarily or in the long term with mild to severe severity. Anemia is a blood disorder or hematological disorder that occurs when the level of hemoglobin (the main part of red blood cells that binds oxygen) is below normal.

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the nurse is conducting admission assessments on four new clients. which client would most likely be referred to the dietitian for a detailed nutrition assessment?

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The nurse is conducting admission assessments on four new clients. An older adult client most likely be referred to the dietitian for a detailed nutrition assessment.

The nursing evaluation consists of acquiring data about the patient's unique physiological, psychological, social, and spiritual requirements. In order to successfully evaluate a patient, is the first step. It is essential to this procedure to collect both subjective and objective data.

Data collection for the evaluation involves measuring vital indicators including temperature, heart rate, blood pressure, respiration rate, and level of discomfort using a scale appropriate for the patient's age or condition. Through the formulation of a nursing diagnosis, the evaluation determines the patient's present and future care requirements. In order to prioritize treatments and care, the nurse must be able to distinguish between normal and disordered patient physiology.

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a newer nurse is assigned to care for several children with advanced cancer. the nurse finds the assignment extremely challenging due to a lack of experience and is considering requesting a different assignment. what is the best course of action by the nurse to resolve the situation?

Answers

In general, most cancers that has unfold will want remedy that reaches all elements of the body, which includes chemotherapy, centered therapy, immunotherapy or hormone therapy.

Oncology nurses are healthcare specialists who're specifically educated to manage chemotherapy and radiation treatments. They also are chargeable for tracking most cancers patients' critical symptoms and symptoms and general well-being, assisting them control ache and reduce aspect results as they go through treatment. These remedies are taken through mouth or infused into the blood. The nurse should offer support throughout the whole diagnosis - at the beginning, during and after treatment. Share a joke or laugh with them if this seems appropriate.

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a client 86 years of age with a diagnosis of vascular dementia and cardiomyopathy is exhibiting signs and symptoms of pneumonia. the nurse has attempted to assess the client's temperature using an oral thermometer, but the client is unable to follow directions to close the mouth and secure the thermometer sublingually. additionally, the client repeatedly withdraws their head when the nurse attempts to use a tympanic thermometer. how should the nurse proceed with this assessment?

Answers

By the axilla, determine the client's temperature. Embrace the axilla with the thermometer (armpit). Make sure the upper arm is resting against the patient's side while you place the forearm over the chest.

For five minutes, leave the thermometer in its position. This will guarantee the accuracy of the reading. The range of body temperatures considered to be normal may have shifted as a result of modern instruments for measuring axilla temperature. Tympanic measures provided a more accurate approximation of fluctuations in core body temperature than axillary readings did. This variance in axillary temperature may be caused by modifications to the measurement methodologies brought about by contemporary tools and processes. However, there was a strong correlation between axilla temperature levels and tympanic measurements, indicating that the method may be able to accurately assess a person's health.

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a patient/client was directed to take 8 oz of miralax solution as bowel prep for a colonoscopy. the miralax powder was mixed in 64 oz of gatorade. the client drank 8 oz every 15 minutes for six doses. two doses remained. how many milliliters of miralax solution remained?

Answers

If the client drank 8 oz every 15 minutes for six doses, 480ml of Miralax solution remained.

A colonoscopy is an examination to look for changes in the large intestine (rectum) and swollen, irritated tissues, polyps, or cancer. During a colonoscopy, a long, adaptable cylinder (colonoscope) is embedded into the rectum.

Six times, the client received 8 ounces for each dose.

Total ounces consumed = 8 oz x 6 doses. = 48ounces.

Miralax sends = 64ouncess.

Ounces of solution remained = 64 - 48 = 16ounces,.

1 ounce = 29.574ml.

16 ounces = 16 x 29.574ml.

= 480ml approximately.

Hence, 480ml of Miralax solution remained.

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true or false? because of the rising rates of childhood obesity and incidence of chronic diseases related to weight, physicians now recommend that all children ages 9-11 be screened for elevated cholesterol. true false

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It is true that physicians now recommend that all children ages 9-11 be screened for elevated cholesterol.

Obesity is a complex disease involving an excessive amount of body fat. Obesity isn't just a cosmetic concern. It's a medical problem that increases the risk of other diseases and health problems, such as heart disease, diabetes, high blood pressure, and certain

Due to the rising prevalence of childhood obesity, the American Academy of Pediatrics (AAP) recommends screening all children between the ages of 9 and 11 for high cholesterol levels. The first cholesterol test for children in these categories should take place between the ages of two and ten.

Obesity, diabetes, liver and kidney disease, underactive thyroid, and other conditions can all contribute to high cholesterol in children.

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a male client has received a prescription for orlistat for weight and nutrition management. in addition to the medication, the client states he plans to take a multivitamin. what teaching should the nurse provide? a. as a nutritional supplement, orlistat already contains all the recommended daily vitamins and minerals. b. multivitamins are contraindicated. during treatment with weight-control medications such as orlistat c. be sure to take the multivitamin and the medication at least two hours apart for best absorption and effectiveness. d. following a well-balanced diet is a much healthier approach to good nutrition than depending on a multivitamin.

Answers

Be sure to take the multivitamins and the medication at least two hours apart for the best absorption and effectiveness.

What do you mean by Orlistat?

Orlistat is a prescription weight-loss medication that works by blocking the absorption of dietary fat in the body. It is available in capsule form under the brand name Xenical. The medication helps to reduce the amount of fat absorbed from food, resulting in weight loss.

Define Multivitamins?

Multivitamins are dietary supplements that are made up of a combination of vitamins and minerals. They may also contain other nutrients, such as herbs, amino acids, and fatty acids. Multivitamins are typically taken to ensure that the body receives all the essential nutrients it needs to function properly.

Therefore, Option C is correct.

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which statement describing urinary incontinence in an older adult client is true? urinary incontinence is a disease. urinary incontinence isn't a disease. urinary incontinence in the elderly population can't be treated. urinary incontinence is a normal part of aging.

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It is true that Urinary incontinence isn't a disease.

The loss of bladder control, or urinary incontinence, is a common problem that can be embarrassing. The severity ranges from occasionally leaking urine when you cough or sneeze to having a sudden and strong urge to urinate that prevents you from using the restroom.

Urinary incontinence is not a disease or a normal part of aging. Confusion, dehydration, fecal impaction, restricted mobility, or other factors could be to blame. Urinary incontinence can be brought on by a number of medications, including diuretics, hypnotics, sedatives, anticholinergics, and antihypertensives. Most clients with urinary incontinence can be dealt with; Some are treatable.

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the nurse knows that the anesthetist will administer what medication at the end of surgery to ensure that the client regains skeletal muscle function?

Answers

According to question, nurse should Blocks acetylcholine from repolarizing muscle cells .

Succinylcholine, a substance frequently used in anesthesia, paralyzes healthy skeletal muscles by obstructing transmission at the myoneural junction, yet also causes prolonged muscular spasms in denervated muscle that endure for many minutes. Since atracurium besilate and cisatracurium do not depend on the liver or kidneys for disposal, they may be ideal for long-term neuromuscular blockade.

A quaternary ammonium compound with positively charged nitrogen that exhibits an affinity for nicotinic Ach receptors is known as a non-depolarizing NMBD. To block Ach and prevent depolarization, it only has to bind one of the two alpha subunits, leading to muscle relaxation.

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florence nightingale was a nursing pioneer who challenged prejudices against women and elevated the status of all nurses. which statement accurately describes one of her accomplishments?

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she promoted the publication of books about nursing and health care  accurately describes one of her accomplishments, florence nightingale was a nursing pioneer who challenged prejudices against women and elevated the status of all nurses.

Enhancing quality of life via improved health is the primary goal of healthcare. To maintain their valuation and be able to continue operating, commercial enterprises concentrate on making a profit. To live up to its commitment to society, health care must prioritise generating social profit.  (as in medicine, dentistry, clinical psychology, and public health) Hospitals, medical devices, clinical trials, outsourcing, telemedicine, medical tourism, health insurance, and medical equipment all fall under the category of healthcare. Due to its expanding coverage, services, and rising investment by both public and private entities, the Indian healthcare system is expanding quickly.

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an immune deficiency causes a severe reduction in the amount of mhc-ii expressed on the surface of professional antigen-presenting cells. predict which immune processes will be significantly impacted by this deficiency.

Answers

A deficiency in MHC-II expression can have significant impacts on both the adaptive and innate immune responses, potentially leading to an increased susceptibility to infections and other immune-related disorders

A deficiency in MHC-II expression on the surface of professional antigen-presenting cells (APCs) can significantly impact several immune processes. MHC-II molecules play a crucial role in the presentation of peptide antigens to T cells, which is a key step in the activation of the adaptive immune response. Therefore, a deficiency in MHC-II expression could lead to a reduction in T cell activation and impaired adaptive immune responses to infections and foreign antigens.

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Find the atmospheric pressure in kilopascals if a mercury barometer reads 742 mm.

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the atmospheric pressure in kilopascals if a mercury barometer reads 742 mm is 101.32

1 mm of mercury = 1.3332239 kPa

Therefore, 742 mm of mercury = 742 x 1.3332239 = 986.9807 kPa

Atmospheric pressure in kilopascals = 986.9807 - (101.3 x 9.80665) = 101.32 kPa

742 millimeters of mercury (mmHg) is a unit of pressure that is often used to measure atmospheric pressure. The conversion factor from mmHg to kilopascals (kPa) is 1.3332239. Therefore, 742 mmHg can be converted to 986.9807 kPa. To find the atmospheric pressure in kPa, we need to subtract the pressure due to gravity from the total pressure. The pressure due to gravity, in kPa, can be calculated by multiplying the acceleration due to gravity (9.80665 m/s2) by the elevation (101.3 m). Therefore, the atmospheric pressure in kPa is equal to 986.9807 - (101.3 x 9.80665) = 101.32 kPa.

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a nursing instructor is reviewing a case study with students about a client with mania who was admitted to a mental health unit. the instructor asks the students what medical diagnosis is most likely responsible for the mania. which would be the best answer by a student?

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Students and a nursing instructor are discussing a case study about a manic patient who was admitted to a mental health facility. The teacher asks the pupils to identify the medical condition that is most likely to be the cause of the mania. The most suitable response from a student would be bipolar disorder.

Both episodes of severe depression and episodes of mania—overwhelming joy, excitement, or enthusiasm, tremendous energy, a decreased need for sleep, and fewer inhibitions—are experienced by people with bipolar disorder. Bipolar disorder is a highly individual experience.

You must have at least one episode of mania or hypomania to be diagnosed with bipolar disorder. Both of these feature high levels of energy, impulsivity, and enthusiasm, although hypomania is seen as less severe than mania. Mania symptoms can interfere with your daily activities and cause issues at work or home. It is generally accepted that bipolar disorder is caused by chemical imbalances in the brain. Neurotransmitters, such as noradrenaline, serotonin, and dopamine, are the substances in charge of regulating how the brain works.

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Place the treatments for obsessive-compulsive disorders in order from most effective to least effective. (4)exposure and response prevention therapy coupled with tricyclic antidepressants exposure and response prevention therapy alone tricyclic antidepressants alone placebo

Answers

The treatments for obsessive-compulsive disorders in order from most effective to least effective is as follows :

- exposure and response prevention therapy coupled with tricyclic antidepressants

- exposure and response prevention therapy alone

- tricyclic antidepressants alone

- placebo

Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is characterized by a series of undesired thoughts and fears (obsessions), which cause you to engage in repetitive behaviors (compulsions). Such obsessions and compulsions disrupt daily life and trigger significant distress.

Obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) is treatable. The treatment suggested will be based on how significantly it is interfering with your life.

The two primary treatments are:

Psychological therapy is a type of therapy that helps you confront your fears and obsessive thoughts without "correcting" them with compulsions.medicine - typically an antidepressant medication that could aid by altering the chemical balance in your brain

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a authorization is defined as an authorization for use or disclosure of patient- specific health information that has been combined with any other document?

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An authorization for use or disclosure of patient- specific health information that has been combined with any other document is called compound authorization.

As long as the authorization clearly distinguishes between the conditioned and unconditioned components and provides participants with a straightforward way to opt in to the unconditioned research activities, the updated rule permits compound authorizations on the same form. The "opt in" check box can be used on the form for the unconditioned component, according to the final rule's commentary, but a "opt out" box cannot be used since it does not offer a clear means to sanction the optional research activity, which Shapiro argues could be perplexing to IRBs. "In the scenario containing research-related therapy plus an optional tissue and data banking component, IRBs were accustomed to examining two different consents.

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an older adult client at a long-term care facility is eating only about 25% of her meals. when asked about this, the client reports not being able to chew well. the client currently has a regular diet prescribed. when asking the health care provider to prescribe a new diet, what type will the nurse recommend?

Answers

 Mechanically altered diet would best suit this client. Thus correct answer (b).

What is meant by mechanically altered?

Diets that have been mechanically adjusted often include items that can be securely and effectively ingested. Foods are mechanically changed so they are simple to chew and swallow by whipping, mixing, grinding, cutting, or mashing.

A texture-modified food called a mechanical soft diet is for persons who have trouble chewing and swallowing. To make eating safer, foods might be blended, ground, finely diced, or pureed.

Foods you can eat:

Pureed breads (also called pre-gelled breads)Cooked cereals with little texture, such as oatmeal, or slightly moistened dry cereals with little texture, such as corn flakes.Smooth puddings, custards, yogurts, and pureed desserts.

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Full Question: The nurse is doing client education for a 71-year-old woman. She is a resident of a long-term care facility, and the assessment indicates that she is at a high risk for malnutrition. It is noted that she is only eating about 25% of her meals. When asked why she does not eat more, she says she cannot chew very well. She has a regular diet ordered. A request is made for the physician to change the diet. What diet would best suit this client?

A) Pureed

B) Mechanically altered

C) High fiber

D) Clear liquid

a patient who has been treated for uric acid stones is being discharged from the hospital. what type of diet does the nurse discuss with the patient? high-protein diet low-calcium diet low-phosphorus diet low-purine diet

Answers

A patient whose uric acid stones have been treated is leaving the hospital. The nurse will go over low-purine diet options with the patient. Option (d) is correct.

Steer clear of meats with high purine levels, such as liver, kidney, and sweetbreads, which raise uric acid levels in the blood. beef - red. Reduce the amount of beef, lamb, and pork you eat. Seafood. Chemicals called purines occur naturally in some foods and beverages. Uric acid is a result of the breakdown of these substances by your body.

In order to lower uric acid, a low-purine diet eliminates the foods and beverages with the highest purine concentration. Anchovies, sardines, herring, mussels, cod, scallops, trout, and haddock are only a few examples of the fish, seafood, and shellfish. Several meats, including organ meats like liver, bacon, turkey, veal, and venison.

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Correct Question:

A patient who has been treated for uric acid stones is being discharged from the hospital. what type of diet does the nurse discuss with the patient?

1. high-protein diet.

2. low-calcium diet.

3. low-phosphorus diet.

4. low-purine diet.

causal relationships of lifestyle diseases often involve more than one determinant. this is called: quizlert

Answers

Causal relationships of lifestyle diseases often involve more than one determinant. this is called Generalizability.

Lifestyle diseases are defined as diseases whose occurrence is primarily based on people's daily habits and is the result of an inappropriate relationship between people and their environment. A disease that is linked to how a person or group of people lives.

Atherosclerosis, heart disease, and stroke are examples of lifestyle diseases, as are obesity and type 2 diabetes, as well as diseases associated with smoking and alcohol and drug abuse.

NCDs such as cardiovascular disease (CVD), stroke, diabetes, and certain types of cancer are strongly linked to lifestyle choices and are thus frequently referred to as lifestyle diseases. Infectious diseases, deficiency diseases, hereditary diseases (including both genetic and non-genetic hereditary diseases), and physiological diseases are the four main types of disease.

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the nurse is caring for an obese client who needs to be turned every 2 hours. which action by this nurse is an example of reflection-for-action?

Answers

The nurse provides assistance with submitting the client's care plan while taking into account prior experience and best practices.

According to Schon, there are three different kinds of reflection: reflection-in-action, reflection-on-action, and reflection-for-action. The goal of the first two types of reflection is reflection for action, which aids the person in considering how their future actions might change as a result of the reflection. Reflection-in-action occurs when a nurse first tries to turn a patient before realising they need assistance. This is reflection-on-action when one considers whether everyone is making effective use of the resources available. This is reflection-for-action when the client's care plan is modified in light of these additional reflections. It is risky to turn an obese client alone, so resources should be used. Because of staffing limitations, the client's outcomes shouldn't be compromised by changing the plan of care.

Hence, three kind of reflection defines medical caring of nurse.

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an elderly patient with parkinson's disease has been prescribed carbidopa/levodopa. which data indicates that the medication has been effective? the patient:

Answers

The client is able to walk upright without stumbling.

One of the symptoms of PD is a forward shuffling gait, so being able to walk upright without stumbling would indicate that the medication is effective.

A disease is a specific abnormal condition that adversely affects all or part of the structure or function of an organism and is not directly attributable to trauma . Diseases are often known as medical conditions associated with specific signs and symptoms. Illness can be caused by external factors such as pathogens or by internal dysfunction. For example, internal dysfunction of the immune system can lead to various diseases, including various forms of immunodeficiency, hypersensitivity, allergies, and autoimmune diseases.

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a prescription reads to infuse 1 unit of packed red blood cells over 4 hours. the unit of blood contains 250 ml. the drop factor is 10 drops (gtt)/1 ml. the nurse prepares to set the flow rate at how many drops per minute? fill in the blank. record your answer to the nearest whole number.

Answers

A prescription reads to infuse 1 unit of packed red blood cells over 4 hours. the unit of blood contains 250 ml. the drop factor is 10 drops (gtt)/1 ml. the nurse prepares to set the flow rate at how many drops per minute 31 drops per minute  record your answer to the nearest whole number.

Red blood cells are round with a flattish, indented center, like doughnuts without a hole. Your healthcare provider can check on the size, shape, and health of your red blood cells using a blood test.

Hemoglobin is the protein inside red blood cells. It carries oxygen. Red blood cells also remove carbon dioxide from your body, bringing it to the lungs for you to exhale.

Red blood cells are made in the bone marrow. They typically live for about 120 days, and then they die.

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