Amanda looks at an animal cell under a microscope and sketches the cell. She notices that the cell is in a phase of mitosis, so she asks her friend to identify the phase. Her friend identified the cell as being in prophase. What should she be observing in order to correctly label her sketch as prophase?

A. the chromosomes are visible, spindle fibers form, and the nuclear envelope disappears.
B. the cytoplasm starts to split into two new cells and the two new nuclei develop
C. the chromosomes move away from the center to either side of the cells.
D. the duplicated chromosomes line up at the center of the cell

Answers

Answer 1

Her friend identified the cell as being in prophase therefore what she should she be observing in order to correctly label her sketch as prophase is . the chromosomes are visible, spindle fibers form, and the nuclear envelope disappears which is therefore denoted as option A.

What is Mitosis?

This is referred to as type of cell division in which the parent cell gives rise to two identical daughter cells and occur during the growth and replacement of tissues in the body system

Prophase is the first stage of mitosis and it is characterized by the following features such as:

Condensation of chromosomes.Movement of the centrosomes.Formation of the mitotic spindle.Nucleoli break down.

The features mentioned above are synonymous with those of option A which is therefore the reason why it was chosen as the correct choice.

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Related Questions

What are the similarities between DNA replication and RNA replication?

Answers

The similarities between DNA replication and RNA replication would be the integrity of the genetic material is intended to be preserved by both methods.

The template for both procedures is deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA). The orientation in which DNA and RNA are synthesized is from 5' to 3'. Enzymes are required for the stimulation of significant reactions in both processes. Both copying and transferring the genome are accomplished by replication. DNA is needed as a template for both processes. Both produce bonds that resemble phosphodiesters.

At precise locations where the DNA double helix is unraveled, known as origins, DNA replication begins. An enzyme called RNA-dependent RNA polymerase, also known as RNA replicase, is responsible for catalyzing RNA replication from an RNA template.

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how can you tell whether the test microorganism was sensitive or resistant to the chemotherapeutic agent

Answers

by the Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion, you tell whether the test microorganism was sensitive or resistant to the chemotherapeutic agent

The Kirby-Bauer disk diffusion susceptibility test is designed to evaluate the susceptibility or resistance of pathogenic aerobic and facultative anaerobic bacteria to various antimicrobial compounds.

This information can then be used to help a doctor decide on the best course of treatment for a patient. In the Kirby-Bauer test, bacteria are put on a solid growth media plate, and then antibiotic wafers (seen as white disks) are added to the plate. Areas of clear media surrounding the disks show that the antibiotic prevents bacterial growth after allowing the germs to develop overnight. When testing for antibiotic susceptibility in the lab, we employ both the Kirby-Bauer test and the disk diffusion test. All of its findings indicate that the target-tested antibiotics were diffused on Muller Hinton Agar plates.

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What are the 4 characteristics of hypothesis?

Answers

The number one capabilities of a hypothesis speculation are falsifiability and testability, which might be contemplated in an assertion summarizing the concept and withinside the capacity to be supported or refuted thru statement and experimentation.

Following are the traits of the speculation: The speculation must be clean and unique to don't forget it to be reliable. If the speculation is a relational speculation, then it must be pointing out the connection among variables. The speculation need to be precise and must have scope for accomplishing extra tests.

A exact Hypothesis need to own the subsequent traits – 1.It is in no way formulated withinside the shape of a question. 2.It must be empirically testable, whether or not it's far proper or wrong. 3.It must be precise and unique. 4.It must specify variables among which the connection is to be established.

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how are innate and adaptive imunity different innate immunity is the defense we are born with

Answers

The innate kind of immunity is typically passed on to kids from parents. Adaptive immunity cannot be inherited because it is not transmitted from parents to children.

Everyone is born with inherent (or natural) immunity, a form of all-encompassing defense. The skin, for instance, serves as a barrier to prevent pathogens from entering the body. Additionally, the immune system can tell when an invader is alien and potentially harmful. The innate and adaptive immune systems are two subsystems of the immune system. Innate immunity is typically thought of as a vague reaction, while the adaptive immune system is considered to be quite specialized.

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which bone cells are responsible for laying down new bone for growth and repair?

Answers

Osteoblasts and osteoclasts, two cell types found in bones, control bone development. Osteoblasts build new bone tissue by putting down collagen and other crucial chemical compounds, whereas osteoclasts remove old bone tissue.

What is osteoblast?

Osteocytes are cells that are "entrapped" by osteoblasts and are found inside the bone itself. Through the coordinated operations of bone cells, bone resorption by osteoclasts, and bone formation, bone tissue is continuously rebuilt. Bones grow, are shaped, and are maintained by osteoblast, osteoclast, osteocyte, and osteoprogenitor bone cells. The thickness of the cortical layer, bone growth, and structural integrity are all significantly influenced by bone-forming cells, including osteoblasts and osteoclasts. Osteoblasts, which create new bone, are derived from bone marrow precursor cells.

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what is the expected functional consequence of movement of a transposable element within the genome?

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A transposable element is a segment of DNA that can move or “jump” from one location in the genome to another. This phenomenon, known as transposition, is an important process in the evolution of many organisms, and it can have a variety of functional consequences.

The most common outcome of transposition is the alteration or disruption of gene expression. Transposable elements can insert themselves into gene coding regions, causing a change in the sequence of the gene and potentially altering its expression. This can result in the production of an aberrant protein, or it can prevent the production of a functional protein altogether. In either case, this alteration of gene expression can lead to changes in the function of the organism.

Transposable elements can also affect gene expression indirectly. For example, they can insert themselves into regulatory sequences, such as promoters or enhancers, and alter the binding of transcription factors that control gene expression. This can result in changes in gene expression without altering the coding sequence of the gene.

In addition to altering gene expression, transposition can also lead to genetic rearrangements. Transposition can cause deletions, inversions, or duplications of a gene, as well as large-scale chromosomal rearrangements. These rearrangements can have a variety of functional consequences, including the activation or inactivation of specific genes.

Finally, transposition can lead to the formation of novel genetic elements. Transposable elements can generate new combinations of genetic sequences, which can lead to the creation of new genes or regulatory sequences. This can result in new functions for the organism, and can be an important source of evolutionary innovation.

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In a genome-wide expression study using a dna microarray assay, what is each spot used to detect?

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In a genome-wide expression study using a DNA microarray assay, each spot is used to detect D) expression of a specific gene by a cell.

A DNA microarray assay can be described as an assay technique in which each of gene of an organism can be studied.

Each gene that is present inside an organism is distributed or captured in a well-known spot using the DNA microarray technique. This is because there is a complementary sequence present in each well for each gene.

We can study the expression of a specific kind of gene as the entire genomic sequence is separated into spots using the DNA microarray assay.

Although a part of your question is missing, you might be referring to this question:

In a genome-wide expression study using a DNA microarray assay, what is each spot used to detect?

A) fate of proteins produced by a cell.

B) location of a protein produced by a cell.

C) location of a gene within a cell.

D) expression of a specific gene by a cell.

E) type of chemical modification of proteins produced by a cell.

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autocrine stimulation is the ability of cancer cells to: a. stimulate secretions that turn off normal growth inhibitors. b. secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth. c. divert nutrients away from normal tissue for their own use. d. stimulate angiogenesis to create their own blood supply.

Answers

The autocrine stimulation is the ability of cancer cells to Secrete increase elements that stimulate their very own increase.

Cancer cells should have mutations that allow them to proliferate withinside the absence of outside increase signals. To reap this, a few cancers accumulate the cappotential to secrete increase elements that stimulate their very own increase, a manner referred to as autocrine stimulation. The final alternatives do now no longer describe autocrine stimulation.

Autocrine stimulation refers to high quality autocrine secretion, which features to stimulate mobileular growth. Many of the high quality autocrine loops were tested in human colorectal carcinoma (CRC), which can be taken into consideration to play an critical position withinside the initiation and development of the cancer.

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Describe the relationship between zebra mussel and unionid mussel population density in the hudson river.

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Zebra mussels, a non-native species, competed with unionid mussels for food. Zebra mussels were able to outnumber unionid mussels, allowing the zebra mussel population to increase dramatically within six years. The unionid mussel population has declined due to lack of food.

What is Zebra Mussel?

The Zebra Mussel is considered one of the most harmful invasive alien species on the planet. It is a small bivalve mollusk from fresh or brackish water, the size of a 5 cent coin, originating in the Black and Caspian Seas and present in Spain since 2001. It is currently found in 3 Spanish river basins: Ebro, Júcar and Guadalquivir.

The Zebra Mussel can create colonies of up to 3 million individuals per square meter and they can live between 2 to 3 years. They reach sexual maturity at one year old and females produce between 4,000 and 1,000,000 fertilized eggs per year. When it detects adverse conditions, it can remain closed and alive for up to two weeks.

This invasive species has no natural predators in the new freshwater habitats it colonizes, thus enhancing its proliferation.

In addition to being a serious environmental threat, the Zebra Mussel is also an economic threat and can cause great damage to the economy.

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which type of filament is more permanent than other filaments and can maintain the cell structure even after the cell dies

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Type of filament is more permanent than other filaments and can maintain the cell structure even after the cell dies is  Intermediate filaments

The intermediate filaments are a permanent part of the cytoskeleton and help provide structure for the cell. They are also essential in anchoring the cell to other cells, called cell cohesion, and to the extracellular matrix.

Intermediate filaments are more permanent fixtures of the cytoskeleton than are the other two classes. They reinforce cell shape and fix organelle location.Intermediate filaments have a diameter of about 10 nm, which is intermediate between the diameters of the two other principal elements of the cytoskeleton, actin filaments (about 7 nm) and microtubules (about 25 nm). In contrast to actin filaments and microtubules, the intermediate filaments are not directly involved in cell movements. Instead, they appear to play basically a structural role by providing mechanical strength to cells and tissues.

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the number of genes estimated in the haploid genome is about 21000. how many genes are present in a zygote

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The genes are present in a zygote  when the number of genes estimated in the haploid genome is about 21000 is 42,000

Union of haploid genomes doubles the number of genes present (fertilization). The Human Genome Project has revealed that there are probably about 20,000-25,000 'haploid' protein coding genes.

Haploid refers to the presence of a single set of chromosomes in an organism's cells. Sexually reproducing organisms are diploid (having two sets of chromosomes, one from each parent). In humans, only the egg and sperm cells are haploid.Why are genomes haploid?

During fertilisation, an egg and sperm (gametes) combine to form a cell that contains a complete complement of DNA. In humans, these gametes are haploid as they have one copy of each chromosome, contributed from each parent.

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what is at least one defining feature of an area of association cortex, as opposed to primary sensory or motor cortex?

Answers

The various thalamic input sources are one distinguishing feature between primary and association cortical areas.

While the visual association cortex is involved in more complex aspects of an image, such as using the discrepancy in information sent from the right and left eyes to perceive depth, the primary visual cortex is responsible for processing visual information related to basic aspects of an image (such as size and shape).

The majority of the cerebral surface of the human brain is made up of the association cortices, which are mostly in charge of the intricate processing that occurs between the arrival of input in the primary sensory cortices and the production of behavior.

The majority of the cerebral surface of the human brain is made up of the association cortices, which are in charge of the complicated processing that occurs between the arrival of input in the primary sensory.

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What is similar DNA sequence?

Answers

The similar DNA sequence is the similarity analysis of DNA sequences compares unknown DNA sequences with known ones to infer the functions of unknown ones.

It can also provide evolutionary information about the same gene sequence in different species, which is a fundamental method to understand the biological information in DNA sequences. The terms "homologous" (shared by ancestry) or "comparable" refer to similar anatomy present in distinct species (shared due to similar selective pressures).

Evidence for the common ancestry of life comes from molecular commonalities. The relationship between several species can be revealed by comparing their DNA sequences. Common ancestry can be proven by similar DNA sequences in genes. The accumulation of differences has caused all living things to share a common ancestor.

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This type of irrigation, often used in orchards growing tree crops, distributes water to plants through small parallel channels between crop rows but often leads to increased soil erosion in the field.
a. Drip irrigation
b. Flood irrigation
c. Furrow irrigation
d. Spray irrigation

Answers

Furrow irrigation, which is frequently used in orchards with tree crops.

What distinguishes flood irrigation from furrow irrigation?Furrow irrigation, a common practice in orchards growing tree crops, provides water to plants through narrow parallel ditches between crop rows, however it frequently causes increased soil erosion in the field.Surface irrigation, often referred to as flood or furrow irrigation, involves farmers pouring water through narrow trenches that cut through their crops. It is likely one of the earliest techniques for watering fields.Surface irrigation techniques using gravity-based water distribution include flood and furrow irrigation.They vary in that furrow irrigation involves flooding only the trenched rows between plants, whereas flood irrigation involves flooding an entire field and, as a result, spreading water equally.In comparison to drip irrigation systems, which waste about 3% of the water they use, furrow irrigation systems are projected to waste 40% of the water they consume.An irrigation technique that enables precisely regulated water application is drip irrigation, commonly referred to as trickle irrigation or micro-irrigation.

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The growth hormone axis contains at least one example of a negative feedback loop.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Option A. True. The growth hormone axis contains at least one example of a negative feedback loop.

The growth hormone axis contains a negative feedback loop, where the release of growth hormone inhibits the further release of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary gland.

The Role of the Negative Feedback Loop in the Growth Hormone Axis

The growth hormone axis is the system responsible for controlling the release of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary gland. It is an important part of the endocrine system that is responsible for:

Regulating growthMetabolismReproduction

One of the ways it regulates these processes is by using a negative feedback loop. In this loop, the release of growth hormone from the anterior pituitary gland will inhibit further release of the hormone. This is an important mechanism that helps to keep the release of growth hormone in balance and maintain homeostasis in the body.

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How many DNA molecules would there be after four rounds of PCR if the initial reaction mixture contained two molecules?
A. 32
B. 8
C. 64
D. 16

Answers

The correct option is D ;  16 , A method known as PCR, or polymerase chain reaction, amplifies a DNA template by using a variety of primers, free nucleotides, and a polymerase enzyme.

Genetic engineering and even investigative forensics make significant use of PCR. A single gene can be amplified using PCR.

Option D, which is 16, is the right response since [tex]2^{4}[/tex]=16.

Note: Taq polymerase, primers, and free nucleotides are crucial molecules required in the PCR process, which amplifies DNA templates.

Thermal cycling guarantees that each phase begins and ends.

Depending on the kind of DNA being amplified, there are certain temperature requirements for each phase of a single cycle.

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the denaturation of which enzyme would most directly interrupt the process of base pairing of nucleotides during dna replication?

Answers

The denaturation of DNA Polymerase enzyme would most directly interrupt the process of base pairing of nucleotides during DNA replication.

A particular kind of enzyme called DNA polymerase (DNAP) is in charge of creating fresh nucleic acid molecules that are copies of the original DNA. Polymers are huge compounds consisting of smaller, repeating units that are chemically linked to one another. Nucleic acids are polymers.

All living things contain a particular type of enzymes called DNA polymerase. DNA replication and DNA repair and upkeep are two of its primary functions. The enzyme is essential for the generational transmission of genetic information.

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which scenario might slow population growth? select all that apply. adaptation that allows the population to gather nutrients more efficiently agricultural runoff providing additional nutrient resources competition within species for the same resources

Answers

The younger population will also decrease due to the high number of women dying during their reproductive years and the decreased likelihood that infected offspring would survive. Lower growth rates will be the outcome of some populations' altered age and sex structures.

These options are all viable possibilities. - It could cause "dead zones" devoid of aquatic life. It improves the health and species variety of aquatic environments. Which of the following statements best describes how an atmosphere rich in oxygen came to be? The rates of photosynthesis were higher than the rates of oxygen consumption. When: fewer children are born; families with children relocate to larger towns and cities; young, more educated people move to larger towns and cities, the population's size and demographics change.The absence of nutrients in a body of water does not cause eutrophication.

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Somatic hypermutation occurs only in the ________ regions of rearranged heavy and light chains.

Answers

Somatic hypermutation occurs only in the V or variable regions of rearranged heavy and light chains.

The immune system can adapt to the new foreign components that it is exposed to through a biological mechanism known as somatic hypermutation. SHM is an essential part of the process of affinity maturation. It is responsible for the diversification of B cell receptors that are employed in the process of recognizing foreign elements (antigens). This enables the immune system to adapt its response to new dangers throughout the lifetime of an organism.

The only place where somatic hypermutation can take place is in the variable region. It is a series of enzymatic reactions that B cells go through in order to produce antibodies. It takes place in the variable sections of B cells, specifically in CDR1 and CDR3.

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Which options describe advantages of genetic engineering in agriculture?
(Select all that apply.)
having crops that are tougher to harvest
□ having crop
that are resistant to diseases
O having crops that yield more food per acre
having crops that are immune to all diseases

Answers

Answer:

□ having crop

that are resistant to diseases

Explanation:

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Which event is most likely to decrease the amount of sunlight that reaches Earth's surface?

Answers

Answer:

A solar eclipse.

Explanation:

A mutation that occurs in the gametes of an organism will most likely be transferred to which of the following?A. the siblings of the organismB. the offspring of an organismC. the other organisms living nearbyD. the mating partner of an organism

Answers

A mutation that occurs in the gametes of an organism will most likely be transferred to the offspring of an organism.

A mutation is a change that occurs in the DNA sequence, either due to mistakes when the DNA is being copied onto the daughter cells or as the result of environmental factors such as UV light and cigarette smoke.

There are different types of Mutations which include Chromosomal aberrations, Point Mutations, and Frameshift Mutations. These can change the proteins which are synthesized from the DNA.

Mutations can have an effect on an organism by means of converting its bodily characteristics (or phenotype) or they could impact the way DNA codes the genetic records (genotype). Whilst mutations arise they could motivate the termination (dying) of an organism or they can be partly lethal.

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2. A biologist studied a nonnative plant species growing on a riverbed. She studied the plant over three years, measuring average growth, monitoring water quality, and observing the effect of this plant on other river organisms. The biologist concluded that the plant was invasive and that it was lowering the amount of oxygen in the river. She wants river authorities to remove the plant to keep it from spreading to other rivers and lakes. River authorities want proof that the explanation is valid. Which of these is the BEST way for the biologist to get validity for this study?

Answers

According to the Biologist Cell function is often compared to the operation of a factory or city as Nucleus. It should be compared to a neighborhood. Thus, option C is correct.

What are centrioles?

Centrioles are small, cylindrical cell organelles, present near the nuclei of animal cells. They are involved in formation of spindle fibers at the time of cell division that help in proper separation of chromosomes during cell division. Plant cells do not have centrioles.

Nucleus and ribosomes are present in both animal and plant cells, while cell wall is found only in plant cell. Thus, the organelle in diagram that should be listed under 'animal only' will be 'centriole.'

Therefore, Cell function is often compared to the operation of a factory or city as Nucleus. It should be compared to a neighborhood. Thus, option C is correct.

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Multigene families include two or more nearly identical genes or genes sharing nearly identical
sequences. A classical example is the set of genes for globin molecules, including genes on human
chromosomes 11 and 16.
How might identical and obviously duplicated gene sequences have gotten from one
chromosome to another?

Answers

By chromosomal translocation, the duplicated gene sequences might have gotten from one chromosome to another.

When a chromosome splits and is partially or completely reattached to a separate chromosome, this is referred to as a chromosome translocation.

Two alpha (α) and two beta (β) polypeptide chains make up adult hemoglobin. On chromosome 16, there are two copies of the hemoglobin alpha gene (HBA1 and HBA2), each of which codes for an α-chain. On chromosome 11, the hemoglobin beta gene (HBB) encodes the β-chain.  The mutation in chromosome 16 and chromosome 11 causes α- and β-globin gene clusters by translocation to cause thalassemia.

Therefore, the answer is chromosomal translocation.

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which mammals were found to have a vocal range of 7 octaves, nearly twice that of humans?

Answers

Bats mammals were found to have a vocal range of 7 octaves, nearly twice that of humans.

With their particularly modified voice boxes, bats are able to use their amazing vocal range to reach seven octaves, greatly exceeding that of humans.For the first time, scientists have captured video of a bat's voice box, or larynx, while it creates sound. They discovered that bats use a thick structure known as "false vocal folds" to produce sounds near the bottom of their range.Similar vocal folds found in humans are used by throat and death metal vocalists to produce their guttural growls even though they are not used for speech.

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Craniofacial size has reduced over the course of human evolution, including during the transition from foraging to farming. place the sequence of events following the dietary transition in chronological order to show how craniofacial growth became reduced.
a. Eating foods that were reduced in toughness
b. Chewing stressed changed
c. Less demand placed on chewing muscles and craniofacial bones

Answers

The chronological order that shows how the craniofacial growth became reduced in the course of evolution is:

Eating foods that were reduced in toughnessChewing stressed changedLess demand placed on chewing muscles and craniofacial bones.

Craniofacial growth is a highly regulated process that involves the development of the bones of the cranium and the face. The enlargement of the hard and soft tissues occurs as well.

Evolution is the process of slow changes that occur in the course of time over several generations. It is a population phenomenon that can only be observed in a group and not in one individual.

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how does a dually innervated autonomic effector differ from a singly innervated autonomic effector? group of answer choices a dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. a singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the sympathetic division. a dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. a singly innervated autonomic effector receives input from only the parasympathetic division. a dually innervated effector utilizes both acetylcholine and norepinephrine as neurotransmitters. a singly innervated autonomic effector utilizes only acetylcholine. a dually innervated effector utilizes both acetylcholine and norepinephrine as neurotransmitters. a singly innervated autonomic effector uses only norepinephrine.

Answers

A dually innervated effector receives input from both sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways. The option (B) is correct.

What are sympathetic and parasympathetic pathways?

Sympathetic pathways leave the central nervous system via preganglionic neurons located in the intermediolateral columns of the spinal cord from thoracic to mid-lumbar levels.  

The parasympathetic nervous system consists of many pathways that connect its craniosacral components with the peripheral tissues. Each parasympathetic pathway consists of two neurons, the presynaptic (preganglionic) and postsynaptic (postganglionic) neurons.

Therefore, the parasympathetic pathway is responsible for relaxing the body, while the sympathetic pathway is responsible for preparing for an emergency.

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during an action potential, the relative charge across the membrane of an axon is reversed. which ion makes the largest contribution to this change in potential, and in what direction does the ion move?

Answers

In the depolarization step of action potential where the membrane resting potential is reversed by the rush of sodium ions into a neuron.

A membrane potential shift from -70mV to +30mV for a limited period of time is known as an action potential.

The moving action potential has three stages:

1) The depolarization step, where sodium ions rush into a neuron and reverse the membrane resting potential; and

2) repolarization, which is a mechanism that restores the resting voltage of the membrane and the ionic concentration in the cell, is caused by the closure of the voltage-gated sodium channels and the opening of the potassium channels.

3) Hyperpolarization, when excessive potassium ion efflux occurs as a result of some open potassium channels increasing potassium permeability and causing a drop in the membrane potential.

4) The action potential, which is a transient reversal of membrane potential that travels through the axon, comprises three phases that are described above.

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For bacteriophages and animal viruses ________ is the step in the viral life cycle that determines host cell or tissue specificity.
A) penetration
B) assembly
C) attachment/absoption
D) synthesi

Answers

For bacteriophages and animal viruses, C) attachment/absorption is the step in the viral life cycle that determines the host cell or tissue specificity.

What is the life cycle of bacteriophages?

Bacteriophages have lytic/lysogenic cycle. Lytic cycle causes the death of the host whereas lysogenic cycle causes integration of phage into the host genome. Bacteriophages inject DNA in host cell whereas animal viruses enter by endocytosis or membrane fusion.

Lytic cycle steps of bacteriophages are as following:

1. Phage attachment: To enter a host bacterial cell, phage must first attach itself to the bacterium, 2. bacterial cell entry, 3. phage replication and 4. birth of new phage.

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was the punnett square created in this exercise a good predictor of offspring phenotypes resulting from a dihybrid cross of heterozygous parents?

Answers

Answer: Punnett Squares take each of the possible alleles that the parent can pass down and predicts all possible outcomes for the offspring

Explanation:In this example, let’s set the trait for hair color (this is not a real example, it's hypothetical).Capital A is for blonde hair (its dominant)Lowercase a is for brown hair (it's recessive)In the above Punnett square, both parents are heterozygous- they have one Allele for blonde hair and one allele for brown hair. Since blonde hair is dominant, they both have blonde hair.In this Punnett square, 2/4 (50%) of the offspring will have the genotype Aa. This will present itself in the phenotype of blonde hair.1/4 (25%) of the offspring will have the genotype AA, which is homozygous for blonde hair.Lastly, 1/4 (25%) of the offspring will have the genotype aa, and this is homozygous recessive for brown hair.A Punnett square makes this much easier to visualize.

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