A series circuit has three resistors of 4 ohms each. The voltage drop across each resistor is 4 volts. Technician A says that the source voltage is 12 volts. Technician B says that the total resistance is 18 ohms. Which technician is correct?
Tech A
Tech B
Both
Neither

Answers

Answer 1

Technician a is correct that saying the source voltage is 12 voltages across each resistor.

what is ohm's law?

One of the most basic and important laws of electric circuits is Ohm's law. Ohm's law states that the voltage across a conductor is directly proportional to the current flowing through it, provided all physical conditions and temperatures remain constant.

Briefing:

For this case, total resistance will be, R = 4 + 4 + 4 = 12 Ω

Hence,

Technician B says wrong.

Also,

In a series circuit, the total voltage is given as

V = V₁ + V₂ + V₃      

or

V = 4 + 4 + 4 = 12V

Hence,

Technician A  says correct.

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Answer 2

The technician with the correct statement is Tech A

How do I know which technician is correct?

To know which technician is correct, we shall determine the total voltage and the total resistance. This is shown below:

The total voltage can be obtained as follow:

Voltage thought 1st resistor (V₁) = 4 voltsVoltage thought 1st resistor (V₂) = 4 voltsVoltage thought 1st resistor (V₃) = 4 voltsTotal voltage (V) = ?

For series connection, total voltage is given as

V = V₁ + V₂ + V₃

V = 4 + 4 + 4

V = 12 volts

This, Tech A is correct.

The total resistance can be obtained as follow:

Resistor 1 (R₁) = 4 ohmsResistor 2 (R₂) = 4 ohmsResistor 3 (R₃) = 4 ohmsTotal resistance (R) = ?

For series connection, total resistance is given as

R = R₁ + R₂ + R₃

R = 4 + 4 + 4

R = 12 ohms

Thus, Tech B is wrong as the total resistance is 12 ohms and not 18 ohms

Therefore, we can conclude that Tech A is correct.

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Related Questions

Which of the following statements is (are) true about accounts receivables? (Check all that apply.)
Multiple select question.
(A)Accounts receivable are a liability.
(B)Accounts receivable are increased when payments are received from credit customers.
(C)Accounts receivable reflects the amount owed by customers.
(D)Accounts receivable are increased when credit sales are made.

Answers

Customers' outstanding is reflected in accounts receivable. Credit sales result in an increase in accounts receivable.

Which of the following statements is accurate about the receivables account?

When products or services are sold to clients on account, the accounts receivable are created. As a result of receiving payment in the future, accounts receivable benefit the business in the future.

Which of the following responsibilities  under accounts receivable?

All cash are handled by the accounts receivable (AR) department. They oversee the processing of invoices, collection,  application,  and credit . Therefore, the accounts receivable staff is essential to ensuring that your sales revenue is converted into in your bank account.

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"The correct statements about accounts receivables are options (C) and (D).

(C)Accounts receivable reflects the amount owed by customers.

(D)Accounts receivable are increased when credit sales are made.

What are Accounts receivable?

Accounts receivable are an asset, not a liability. They represent the amount of money that customers owe to a business for goods or services sold on credit. Accounts receivable are increased when credit sales are made, and decreased when payments are received from credit customers.

To explain in detail, accounts receivable are part of the revenue cycle of a business. When a business sells goods or services on credit, it records the sale as revenue and also creates an account receivable for the customer.

Therefore, The account receivable is a claim against the customer's future payment. The business expects to collect the account receivable within a short period of time, usually 30 to 60 days. The account receivable is reported on the balance sheet as a current asset.

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PT 2/ The charge nurse in the emergency room asks Brenda to assemble a team to improve the delivery of pain medication. As she considers who to place on the team, Brenda should:
a) Review the aim statement to make sure the team includes representatives of all processes affected by the team's aim.
b) Create a team of volunteers.
c) Create a team of managers and administrators.
d) Make sure only nurses are on the team, as they are the most likely to help her achieve her aim.

Answers

Make sure the team includes members of all the processes impacted by the team's objective by reviewing the aim statement. The correct answer is option (A).

What is the processes affected by the team's aim?

The success of a project depends on the change team having the correct members. Brenda should assess the target statement since the team should include representative of all processes impacted by the goal. 

Additionally, it has to have individuals who can manage the project on a day-to-day basis as well as people with the power to break down obstacles and make changes in the system. An interprofessional team often performs better than a team with members from only one profession.

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The charge nurse in the emergency room asks Brenda to assemble a team to improve the delivery of pain medication. As she considers who to place on the team, Brenda should a) Review the aim statement to make sure the team includes representatives of all processes affected by the team's aim.

Why does she have to review the aim of the team?

This is the best answer because it follows the principle of forming a multidisciplinary team that can address the problem from different perspectives and roles. A team that includes representatives of all processes affected by the team's aim can identify the root causes of the problem, generate possible solutions, test and implement changes, and monitor and evaluate the results.

A team that is too narrow or too broad may miss important aspects of the problem or create unnecessary conflicts or delays.

b) Create a team of volunteers.

This is not a good answer because it does not ensure that the team has the relevant knowledge, skills, and authority to work on the problem. A team of volunteers may lack the commitment, accountability, or support needed to achieve the aim. A team of volunteers may also not represent the diversity of views and experiences of the stakeholders involved in the process.

c) Create a team of managers and administrators.

This is not a good answer because it does not include the frontline staff who are directly involved in the delivery of pain medication. A team of managers and administrators may have a top-down approach that does not consider the realities and challenges of the clinical practice. A team of managers and administrators may also not have the trust or buy-in of the staff who are expected to implement the changes.

d) Make sure only nurses are on the team, as they are the most likely to help her achieve her aim.

This is not a good answer because it does not include other disciplines or departments that may affect or be affected by the delivery of pain medication. A team of only nurses may have a limited view of the problem and the potential solutions. A team of only nurses may also create resistance or resentment from other stakeholders who are not involved in the team.

Therefore, the correct answer is as given above

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Complete the transcription of the RNA sequence using the DNA template.

Answers

The transcription of the RNA sequence using the DNA template.

DNA Template: ATCGCGAT
RNA Transcription: UAGCGCUA

What is RNA?
RNA, or ribonucleic acid, is a type of nucleic acid found in the cells of all living things. It is made up of a long chain of nucleotides and is a single-stranded molecule, meaning that it has one long backbone with several attached molecules. RNA is important in the formation of proteins, which are the building blocks of all cells. It is also involved in the transport of genetic information from one cell to another. RNA is responsible for carrying genetic information to the ribosomes, where it is translated into proteins. It also plays a role in the regulation of gene expression, helping to control which genes are expressed in a cell. RNA is also involved in the synthesis of proteins and in the regulation of cell growth and development. RNA is essential for life and is widely studied in the fields of molecular biology, genetics, and biochemistry.

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To complete the transcription of the RNA sequence using the DNA template, we need to identify the DNA template strand and the coding strand.

What is the DNA template?

The template strand is the one that is used by the RNA polymerase to synthesize the RNA transcript. The coding strand is the one that has the same sequence as the RNA transcript, except that T is replaced by U. For example, if the DNA template strand is 3'-ATGCCTAG-5', then the coding strand is 5'-TACGGATC-3' and the RNA transcript is 5'-UACGGAAU-3'.

An example of a complete transcription of the RNA sequence using the DNA template is: DNA template strand: 3'-ATGCCTAG-5' RNA transcript: 5'-UACGGAAU-3'

The transcription process is the first step of gene expression, where the information stored in the DNA is copied into the RNA. The RNA transcript can then be translated into a protein, or perform other functions in the cell.

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In polling, the difference between the sample's results and those that would have been obtained had the entire population been interviewed is

Answers

In polling, the difference between the sample's results and those that would have been obtained had the entire population been interviewed is sampling error.

What is a sampling error?

Sampling frame errors occur when researchers choose the wrong subpopulation when selecting the sample. For example, selecting a sampling frame from the telephone white pages book may result in incorrect inclusions because people change cities. A variety of factors influence sampling error, including sample size, sample design, sampling fraction, and population variability. In general, larger sample sizes reduce sampling error, but this reduction is not directly proportional.

The majority of sampling errors can be avoided by increasing the population size and ensuring that the majority of selected respondents adequately represent the rest of the population. The better the outcome, the more rigorously you sample and find the right candidates for your survey.

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Health problems related to obesity include
a. hypertension and lung disease.
b. hypertension and diabetes.
c. diabetes and arthritis.
d. arthritis and asthma.

Answers

The health problem related to obesity include hypertension and diabetes.

What is obesity?

obesity which is also called overweight is defined as abnormal or excessive fat accumulation that presents a risk to health. When a body mass index (BMI) is over 25 it is considered overweight, and over 30 is obese.

Obesity is generally caused by eating too much and exercising too little. If a person consume high amounts of energy, particularly fat and sugars, but do not burn off the energy through exercise and physical activity, much of the surplus energy will be stored by the body as fat.

High blood pressure (hypertension) and diabetes are the related health issues to obesity.

Any obsessed person is prone to diabetes and hypertension.

obesity can be controlled by regular exercise and low in take of fat.

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A mixed arithmetic expression contains all operands of the same type.

Answers

False, All of the operands of a mixed arithmetic expression are of the same type. Mathematical expressions consist of at least two numbers or variables, at least one arithmetic operation, and a statement.

An expression that uses additions +, subtraction -, multiplications *, divisions /, and exponentials ** is called an arithmetic expression. When all of an expression's operands are of the same type, it is referred to as a single mode arithmetic expression (i.e. INTEGER, REAL or COMPLEX). However, this comment will only concern INTEGER and REAL. A mathematical expression can only result in one mathematical value. A character expression results in a single character value when evaluated. A logical or relational expression yields only one logical value upon evaluation. The addition, subtraction, multiplication, division, exponentiation, and modulus operations are carried out via the arithmetic operators. It is arithmetic if there is a common difference between the sequences. You can bet that anything is geometric if it has a common ratio.

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It is a false statement that a mixed arithmetic expression contains operands of different types, such as integers and floats.

What is an arithmetic expression?

An arithmetic expression refers to combination of operands and operators that can be evaluated to a single value. Operands are the values or variables that are involved in the calculation and are the symbols that represent the mathematical operations, such as +, -, *, /, and **.

In Python, there are two main types of numeric operands: integers and floats.

The Integers are whole numbers, such as 3, -5, or 0. The Floats are numbers with a decimal point, such as 3.14, -0.5, or 0.0.

When an arithmetic expression contains operands of the same type, the result is also of the same type. For example, 3 + 5 is an integer expression, and the result is an integer: 8. Similarly, 3.14 - 0.5 is a float expression, and the result is a float: 2.64.

However, when an arithmetic expression contains operands of different types, the result is a float; this is because Python automatically converts the integer operand to a float before performing the calculation.

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8 Select the correct answer to fill in the blank The National Preparedness System is an integrated set of guidance, concepts, , and tools that enable the whole community to meet the National Preparedness Goal

Answers

A comprehensive combination of principles, ideas, procedures, and tools known as the National Preparedness System enables the entire community to achieve the goal of national preparedness.

What is a national preparedness system?

The National Preparedness System is the tool the country will use to develop, maintain, and provide those essential capabilities in order to realize the objective of a safe and resilient country.

The National Readiness System, a comprehensive set of principles, concepts, practices, and resources, enables the entire community to accomplish the objective of national preparedness.

The national preparedness goal is a safe and resilient nation with the capacities needed throughout the entire community to avoid, protect against, mitigate, respond to, and recover from the threats and hazards that pose the greatest risk.

Therefore, a comprehensive combination of principles, ideas, procedures, and tools known as the National Preparedness System enables the entire community to achieve the goal of national preparedness.

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Correct question:
Select the correct answer to fill in the blank. The National Preparedness System is an integrated set of guidance, concepts, _____, and tools that enable the whole community to meet the National Preparedness Goal.

the quantity traded when the quantity supplied of a good, service, or resource equals the quantity demanded is called the quantity

Answers

The cost at which there is an equilibrium between supply and demand for an item, service, or resource; the point at which the supply and demand curves converge. Also referred to as the market-clearing price.

Explain the term market-clearing price?

The price at which the amount provided and the quantity demanded are equal is known as the market-clearing price.

The market can only be "cleared" or balanced by this price.Prices typically rise toward market-clearing levels as a result of market competition. Buyers compete more fiercely with one another for the quantity available when there is surplus demand. Some people will deliberately pay more when there isn't enough of a good for everybody to buy what they want at their desired price, which causes the price to increase. Two things happen as the price rises:As some customers go, the quantity demanded decreases.Some producers boost their output, increasing the supply.

The cost at which there is an equilibrium between supply and demand for an item, service, or resource; the point at which the supply and demand curves converge.

Thus, it is also referred as the market-clearing price.

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The correct question is-

When the quantity supplied of a good service or resource equals the quantity demanded this quantity traded is known as ___.

The ____ theory posits that we perceive color on a continuum from red to green, another from yellow to blue, and another from white to black.

Answers

The opponent process theory posits that we perceive color on a continuum from red to green, another from yellow to blue, and another from white to black.

What is opponent-process theory?

According to the opponent process, a color theory, the human visual system decodes color information by processing photoreceptor cell impulses in an adversarial way. According to the opponent-process hypothesis, there are three opponent channels with red vs green, blue versus yellow, and black versus white as their opposing color pairs (luminance). German scientist Ewald Hering first put forth the notion in 1892. An afterimage is noticed while gazing at a bright color for a time (like red), then glancing away at a white field. The original color will then conjure its complementary color (green, in the case of red input). Complementary hues "cancel each other out" and become neutral when they are blended or mixed (white or gray).

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If you are being passed, you should:

Answers

If you are being passed, you should:
1. Move over to the right side of the lane and allow the other vehicle to pass.
2. Check your rearview and side-view mirrors to make sure it is safe to move.
3. Slow down to allow the other vehicle to pass.
4. Signal your intentions to the other driver by using your turn signal.
5. Do not speed up or try to race the other vehicle.

What is vehicle?
A vehicle is a machine that is used for carrying people or goods from one place to another. It is generally a wheeled vehicle that is powered by an internal combustion engine or electric motor. Examples of vehicles include cars, trucks, buses, motorcycles, boats, and airplanes. Vehicles have been around since the invention of the wheel, and have evolved over time to become more efficient and reliable. The earliest vehicles were used mainly for transportation, but they have since evolved to be used for many other purposes, such as recreation, work, and service. In the past few decades, advances in technology have allowed vehicles to become more reliable and safer. Today, vehicles are commonly used for a variety of purposes, such as getting to and from work, running errands, or taking a leisurely drive. They are also used for transporting goods, helping people with disabilities, or providing emergency services. In addition, vehicles are often used for recreation, such as camping, off-roading, or racing. Vehicles are an important part of modern life, and they are likely to remain so for many years to come. As technology continues to advance, vehicles will become faster, safer, and more efficient.

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A nurse is delegating the ambulation of a client who had knee arthroplasty 5 days ago to an AP. Which of the following info should the nurse share with the AP?
Select all:
A. the roommate is up independently
B. The client ambulates with his slippers on over his antiembolic stockings
C. The client uses a front wheeled walker when ambulating
D. The client had pain meds 30 minutes ago
E. The client is allergic to codeine
F. the client ate 50 % of his breakfast this morning

Answers

Answer:

B. The client ambulates with his slippers on over his antiembolic stockings

C. The client uses a front wheeled walker when ambulating

D. The client had pain meds 30 minutes ago

Explanation:

Which statement about RNA is not true?

Answers

RNA does not contain the nucleotide thymine.

What is RNA?
RNA (ribonucleic acid) is a type of nucleic acid found in cells. It is similar to DNA, but is usually single-stranded and is composed of ribose sugars rather than deoxyribose sugars. RNA is involved in a variety of important biological processes, including the synthesis of proteins, the control of gene expression, and the regulation of cellular metabolism. In the translation of genetic information from DNA to proteins, RNA plays an essential role. DNA is first transcribed into messenger RNA (mRNA) in a process known as transcription. mRNA is then translated into proteins by ribosomes, which are complexes of proteins and ribosomal RNA (rRNA). Transfer RNA (tRNA) is another type of RNA that helps to translate the genetic code from mRNA into proteins.

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Complete Question
Which of the following statements about RNA is not correct?

A) It has a single strand
B) It does not undergo with the replication of bases
C) It does not contain any pyrimidine base
D) Does not contain the nucleotide thymine.

There are many possible statements about RNA that are not true, but one example is: RNA is double-stranded like DNA.

What is RNA about?

This statement is not true because RNA is usually single-stranded, unlike DNA, which is double-stranded. RNA can sometimes form secondary structures by folding and base-pairing with itself, but it does not form a stable double helix like DNA.

RNA stands for ribonucleic acid, and it is a type of nucleic acid that is involved in various cellular processes, such as gene expression, protein synthesis, and regulation. RNA is composed of nucleotides, which are made of a nitrogenous base, a ribose sugar, and a phosphate group. The four bases in RNA are adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and uracil (U).

DNA stands for deoxyribonucleic acid, and it is another type of nucleic acid that stores the genetic information of an organism.

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Nurse is administering optic ear medication on an adult client. Which action should be done to ensure the medication reached the inner ear?

Answers

If a nurse is administering otic ear medication on an adult client, then to ensure the medication reached the inner ear, she should:

A) Press gently on the tragus of the client's ear.

What is otic medication?

Otic analgesic-anesthetic drops are used to treat inflammation in the middle ear and can reduce swelling, pain, and congestion. The lack of antibiotic properties in these ear drops prevents them from treating infections, though. Antipyrine (an analgesic) and benzocaine were present in a typical over-the-counter drug marketed as Auralgan (anesthetic).

In order to treat an ear infection, it was prescribed either by itself or in combination with an antibiotic ear drop. On July 2, 2015, Auralgran was taken off the market because it had been reformulated without complying with FDA requirements for reapproval.

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The first V in the Four Vs is which identifies the quantity of data generated and stored
a variety
b volume

Answers

Volume, the first of the 5 V's of big data, refers to the amount of data that exists. Volume is like the base of big data, as it is the initial size and amount of data that is collected.

What is big data?

Big data refers to massive, difficult-to-manage amounts of data - both organized and unstructured - that inundate enterprises on a daily basis. However, it is not only the type or quantity of data that is significant; it is what businesses do with the data that is crucial. Bigdata is a phrase used to describe a collection of data that is large in size and still rising exponentially with time. Big Data analytics examples includes financial exchanges, social networking sites, aircraft engines, etc. Big Data can be classified as 1) structured, 2) unstructured, or 3) semi-structured.

Here,

The first of the five V's of big data is volume, which refers to the quantity of data that exists. Volume is the foundation of big data since it is the initial quantity and amount of data collected.

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Felix Solutions is a market leader in designing ergonomic interiors and furnishings for office spaces of all sizes and needs. Some of the largest corporate offices are clients of Felix Solutions and the company is witnessing a steady rise in its market share. The success enjoyed by the company is difficult for competitors to imitate because Felix Solutions always has the products that the market needs. Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the fact that Felix Solutions encourages open innovation programs in addition to intrapreneurial programs?

Answers

The marketing team at Felix Solutions runs a feature on its web site called Your-Call which enables every recent customer to call in with new ideas.

What is a marketing team ?The success of a company depends on its marketing personnel. They are responsible for a variety of tasks, including spreading word about your brand, marketing goods or services, offering customer care, and participating in online forums. By organizing and creating the materials that reflect the company, it acts as the public face of the enterprise. A major responsibility of a marketing team is to connect with potential clients, buyers, investors, and/or the general public while developing a unified brand that favourably portrays your business.Here, the marketing team at Felix Solutions runs a feature on its web site called Your-Call which enables every recent customer to call in with new ideas.This strengthens the fact that Felix Solutions encourages open innovation programs in addition to intrapreneurial programs. So, option D is correct.

The complete question is :

Which of the following, if true, would strengthen the fact that Felix Solutions encourages open innovation programs in addition to intrapreneurial programs?

A) The marketing team at Felix Solutions is organized on the lines of the traditional marketing manager model, rather than a brand manager model.

B) The marketing team at Felix Solutions uses brainstorming as the only idea generation technique.

C) The marketing team at Felix Solutions offers a quarterly monetary award to the most innovative employee and his/her product idea is considered for the new product development process.

D) The marketing team at Felix Solutions runs a feature on its web site called Your-Call which enables every recent customer to call in with new ideas.

E) The marketing team at Felix Solutions considers acquisitions and mergers to be the only ways of making additions to its product mix.

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Who is responsible for notifying the regulatory authority when a food handler is diagnosed with a reportable illness?

Answers

Catering Manager is responsible for notifying the regulatory authority when a food handler is diagnosed with a reportable illness .

Who is Catering Manager?

Restaurants, bars, taverns, schools, colleges, and outside suppliers all have catering managers who oversee their food services.

What is the role of a catering manager?

 Events that are catered must be planned and overseen by the catering manager.

                        Their responsibilities include speaking with clients to ascertain their needs, managing staff that makes food during an event, and providing it as needed.

Who is in charge of making sure that the food served to patients, workers, and visitors is safe?

Food safety standards are created, implemented, and maintained for all areas under the supervision of the Estates and Facilities function, according to the authority granted to the Catering Manager.

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While there are four types of forecast error measures that can be used, none are foolproof.

Answers

" While there are four types of forecast error measures that can be used, none are foolproof " is True.

What are the different types of forecast errors?The discrepancy between the predicted and actual demand is the forecast inaccuracy at its most fundamental. There are many calculations that go into forecast error, but the bottom line is that the impact on a distributor's bottom line increases with the size of the discrepancy between actual demand and expected demand.Although there are many commonly used quantitative budget forecasting tools, in this article we concentrate on the top four techniques: A straight line, a moving average, a basic linear regression, and a multiple linear regression are all examples of regression.Total Absolute Error (TAE), Mean Squared Error (MSE), Root Mean Square Error (RMSE), and Mean Absolute Deviation (MAD) (TAE).

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Forecast error measures are used to evaluate the accuracy of predictions or estimates based on historical data. They are:

Mean absolute error (MAE)Mean squared error (MSE)Root mean squared error (RMSE): Mean absolute percentage error (MAPE): What does Forecast error  measures?

The four types of forecast error measures are:

Mean absolute error (MAE): This is the average of the absolute values of the errors, or the deviations between the actual and forecasted values. MAE gives equal weight to all errors, regardless of their direction or magnitude.

Mean squared error (MSE): This is the average of the squared values of the errors. MSE gives more weight to larger errors than smaller ones, and penalizes errors in either direction.

Root mean squared error (RMSE): This is the square root of the MSE. RMSE is also sensitive to large errors, but it has the same units as the original data, which makes it easier to interpret.

Lastly, Mean absolute percentage error (MAPE): This is the average of the absolute values of the errors divided by the actual values, expressed as a percentage. MAPE measures the relative size of the errors, and is useful for comparing forecasts across different scales or units.

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11) By secreting hormones, the thymus causes what cells to become immunocompetent?
A) basophils
B) lymphocytes
C) macrophages
D) monocytes

Answers

The majority of lymphocytes are made up of T cells. These cells begin in the bone marrow and go to the thymus to activate their immune systems.

What are lymphocytes?

One variety of white blood cell is the lymphocyte. They are crucial to the functioning of your immune system, which aids in the body's defense against sickness and infection.

An extensive network of immune cells, lymph nodes, lymph tissue, and lymphatic organs makes up your immune system. Immune cells include lymphocytes. The two primary categories of lymphocytes are:

T lymphocytes (T cells): T cells direct your body's immune response and actively hunt down and destroy cancerous and infected cells.

B cells, or B lymphocytes: The B cell produces antibodies. Proteins called antibodies hunt down viruses, bacteria, and other foreign invaders.

Hence, The majority of lymphocytes are made up of T cells. These cells begin in the bone marrow and go to the thymus to activate their immune systems.

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are microbes that are present for various periods and then disappear

Answers

Microbes that are "transient microbiota" are those that are present for different amounts of time before leaving.

Explain the term Transient microbiota?

The collection of live microorganisms found in a specific habitat is known as the microbiota.

Germs that are only momentarily present in the body are referred to as transitory microbiota, and this group may contain harmful microorganisms. The resident as well as transient microbiota can both be changed by hygiene and food.The environment gives rise to the temporary microbiota, which does not cause disease and does not get established on the surface permanently. As long as the typical resident flora is still present, members of a transient microbiota are often of little relevance.

Thus, microbes that are "transient microbiota" are those that are present for different amounts of time before leaving.

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The complete question is-

____ are microbes that are present for various periods and then disappear.

An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she:

requires CPR.

begins to vomit.

regains consciousness.

has increased tidal volume.

Answers

An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she requires CPR.

Which of the patients listed below should be placed in the recovery position?

If someone is unconscious but breathing and does not have any other life-threatening conditions, they should be placed in the recovery position. Placing someone in the recovery position keeps their airway open and clear.

In an unconscious patient, which position is used to open the airway?

To open the airway of a patient with a suspected neck injury, use the head-tilt, chin-lift manoeuvre. Place your fingertips on the body part of the chin, not the soft tissues under the lower jaw, when using the head-tilt, chin-lift manoeuvre to open a patient's airway.

Is the recovery position supine or upright?

The patient is then rolled back into the supine position on the spinal board. If a spinal injury is suspected and the patient is lying on his or her side, the patient is log-rolled directly onto the spinal board and placed in the supine position.

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How far can healthy hair be stretched without breaking when wet?

Answers

When hair is wet, it can be stretched by 30% of its original length without suffering any harm, but when it is stretched by 30% to 70%, it undergoes irreversible alterations.

Your hair's flexibility is one of the key signs of its health. High levels of elasticity in healthy hair give it body, bounce, and curl creation. Hair can be styled thanks to elasticity, which is also what keeps the curls in place.

The term "elasticity" refers to how a material reacts to the application and removal of a particular kind of mechanical load (pulling and/or bending). When a stress (force per unit area) is applied to a material, it expands beyond its original length by a certain amount. Wet hair is less inflexible than dry hair and can stretch up to 1.5 times its length before returning to its original dimensions. Dry hair can stretch to about 1.2 to 1.3 times its original length before doing so. Since curly hair is tightly coiled when it is relaxed, it can stretch much more than straight hair.

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When wet, healthy hair can be stretched up to 30% longer without breaking.

What causes wet healthy hairs to stretch?

Stretchiness, also known as hair elasticity, is frequently an indication of healthy hair. Your hair has a certain degree of elasticity when it is sufficiently moisturized (i.e., hydrated hair), which enables it to stretch and retract to its original position without breaking.

This is so because keratin, a protein that coils into alpha-helical structures, is a component of hair. When keratin molecules in hair are wet, some of their bonds are broken, allowing the alpha helices to uncoil and expand.

The links will rupture and the hair will snap if the hair is stretched too far. Wet hair is therefore more elastic but also more delicate than dry hair.

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Aim Statement #4:Our most recent data reveal that, on average, we reconcile the medications of only 35 percent of our discharged inpatients. We intend to increase this average system-wide to 50 percent by April 1, 2017, and to 75 percent by August, 31, 2017.
a. Strong
b. Weak

Answers

The voice of the client, or those we serve, is captured in a strong aim statement. Multiple stakeholders are brought into alignment, and it aids in maintaining team focus on the current duties.

What are the key advantages of employing change concepts to generate improvement suggestions?

Using change concepts, you can come up with specific improvement ideas that you might not have otherwise had.

What might be a vital aspect to consider while creating your data collection strategy?

Before you start collecting data, it is essential to define your measure in detail so that you and your team members can consistently measure the same thing and that others can understand what you are measuring.

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During GDL Phase II: The hours of operations and number of passengers are limited. The use of wireless communication devices are prohibited whether hands free or not.

Answers

Note that it is TRUE to state that, during GDL Phase II: The hours of operations and number of passengers are limited. The use of wireless communication devices are prohibited whether hands free or not.

What is GDL Phase II?

Individuals over the age of 16 who transfer/present a valid out-of-state learner license and proof of completion of a teen driver education course will be able to take the driving test. This is known as the Graduated Drivers License II Test.

Under some conditions, a Level 2 intermediate license permits you to drive without the supervision of a parent/legal guardian or an authorized adult. When you successfully finish and fulfill all GDL criteria, your Level 1 card is immediately upgraded to a Level 2 license by the Michigan Department of State.

Each passenger is required to wear a seat belt. Drivers with a GDL are ineligible to graduate to a Class 1, 2, 3, or 4 Commercial Licence. GDL drivers are not permitted to supervise Class 7 learner drivers. A Class 5 GDL driver's license will be suspended for 8 demerits (as opposed to 15 for a non-GDL driver)

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Full Question:

During GDL Phase II: The hours of operations and number of passengers are limited. The use of wireless communication devices are prohibited whether hands free or not.

True or False?

10) Lymph leaves a lymph node via
A) efferent lymphatic vessels
B) afferent lymphatic vessels
C) the cortical sinus
D) the subscapular sinus

Answers

It is to be noted that Lymph leaves a lymph node via " efferent lymphatic vessels" (Option A)

What is a Lymph?

Through efferent lymph veins, lymphatic trunks, and one of the lymphatic ducts that drain lymph back into the venous circulation, the lymph fluid leaves the node.

A lymph node receives lymph through a number of afferent lymphatic veins. It then goes through the node's cortex, paracortex, and medulla before leaving by a single efferent lymphatic channel on the other side.

Lymph moves from lymphatic vessels to lymphatic trunks, collecting ducts, and ultimately into the subclavian veins. All bodily tissues in parallel with blood capillaries.

Hence, it is correct to state that  Lymph exits a lymph node via " efferent lymphatic vessels.

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long-term goals that can be accomplished through saving or investing over a period of time

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long-term goals that can be accomplished through saving or investing over a period of time Retirement fund. Paying off a mortgage. Starting a business. Saving for a child's college tuition.

Long-term goals are things that you want to continue to pursue in the future. These are not things you can do this week or this year. Long-term goals usually take 12 months or more to reach. When setting long-term goals, work backwards. After thinking about what you want to accomplish, plan steps to get back to what you can do now. Think about the steps you need to take in five years, one year, six months to reach your long-term goals. Make a list of everything you need to do each month to reach your goals. Once your monthly goals are met, review your goals and make any necessary adjustments. Focusing on too many long-term goals at once can be distracting and prevent you from achieving any of them. So first choose a goal to work on. Once you've set your goal, write it down and post it somewhere you'll see it every day. I know the saying "out of sight, out of mind", but I don't want my dreams to be like that. Once you've set your long-term goals, make a plan to reach them. The first thing you need to do is break down your goals into a few key milestones. These milestones should take less time than  long-term goals, but  still require more effort.

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long-term goals that can be accomplished through saving or investing over a period of time Retirement fund are:

Paying off a mortgage Starting a business. Saving for a child's college tuition.

What are long-term goals?

A long-term goal can be described as the things that individuals want to accomplish in the future.

It should be noted that the Long-term goals require time as well as planning because these are not the things that  one can do this week or even this year hence Long-term goals are usually at least several years away.

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On January 15, Complete Computer Service paid $2,000 cash for land.
The journal entry to record this transaction would be:
A. Land (D) 2,000
Cash (C) 2,000
B. Cash (D) 2,000
Land (C) 2,000
C. Land (D) 2,000
Common Stock (C) 2,000
D. Common Stock (D) 2,000
Land (C) 2,000

Answers

Since cash is being paid for land, cash is decreasing. Since cash increases on the debit side cash would have to be credited in order to decrease. Also the second account would be land. Since land is being purchased it would increase

Therefore Option A is correct. Please give brainliest I need five more

The limit to how much RAM you can add to your system

Answers

The amount of RAM you can add to your system is limited by the type of motherboard you have.

What is RAM?
Random Access Memory
(RAM) is a type of computer memory that can be easily accessed by the processor. It is a type of volatile memory, meaning it requires a power source to maintain its data. RAM is fast and capable of delivering data quickly to the processor, allowing programs to run more quickly and efficiently. It is used to store program instructions and data that are being actively used by the processor. Whenever a program is opened, the instructions and data stored in RAM are accessed and executed by the processor. RAM is usually much faster than other storage devices such as hard drives, making it essential for running applications and programs.

Some motherboards can only support a certain maximum RAM capacity, while others may be able to accommodate more. Check your motherboard's documentation or contact the manufacturer to find out the maximum RAM capacity it can support.

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The limit to how much RAM you can add to your system

-depends on the amount of memory each memory card slot supports.-depends on the operating system running on your system.-depends on the design of the motherboard.

What is a computer RAM ?

Random-access memory is what it's called, but what does that actually mean? In essence, the RAM in your computer serves as short-term memory, storing information as the processor requests it. Contrast this with persistent data, which is kept on your hard drive and is accessible even when your computer is off.

RAM memory size is crucial for system performance since your computer can access RAM memory more faster than data on a hard drive, SSD, or other long-term storage device.

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Which of the following is LEAST important when obtaining a medical history from a patient with a chief complaint of chest discomfort?

Answers

The correct option D. family history of hypertension; less significant when acquiring a patient's medical history from someone whose primary complaint is chest pain.

Explain the term medical history?

A file containing details on a person's health. In a personal medical history, details concerning ailments, operations, vaccines, and the outcomes of physical examinations and tests may be included.

Information on medications taken as well as health practises like diet and exercise may also be included. A person's immediate family members' medical histories are included in a family medical history. This covers both their present and previous ailments. A family's medical history may reveal a trend of particular ailments. also known as health background.As pain is the body's way of informing you that something is wrong, muscle strains, acidic reflux, or even indigestion could induce chest discomfort. There are many causes of chest pain, but you should never disregard it because it's not natural.

Thus, when gathering a patient's medical history from somebody whose main complaint is chest discomfort, a family history of hypertension is less important.

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The complete question is -

Which of the following is LEAST important when obtaining a medical history from a patient with a chief complaint of chest discomfort?

A. history of cigarette smoking

B. history of previous heart attack

C. presence of personal risk factors

D. family history of hypertension

Mortality is calculated by using a large risk pool of
a. hobbies and time
b. people and time
c. family history and geographical area
d. insurance companies and agents

Answers

A large risk pool of people and time is used to calculate mortality rate.

What is mortality rate?

Mortality rates (the number of people who die each year per 100,000 population) provide a broad picture of a population's health. They are influenced not only by health-care quality, but also by a variety of broader social, economic, and environmental factors.

Avoidable deaths are classified as either preventable or treatable. If a death can be avoided through effective public health and primary prevention interventions, it is considered preventable. A treatable death, on the other hand, is one that could have been avoided through timely and effective health care interventions, including secondary prevention.

Preventable deaths reflect the state of public health, whereas treatable deaths reflect the availability, accessibility, or quality of health-care interventions. They can be used to assess the quality and effectiveness of health-care systems.

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Mortality is calculated by using a large risk pool of b. people and time

What is Mortality?

Mortality  can be dedscribed as the state of being mortal which can as well be used to explains the death rate,  as well as the number of deaths in a certain group of people in a certain period of time.

It should be noted that the mortality rate  can be considered a the ratio of the number of deaths in the year which is compare to the  average total population of the year, hence Mortality is calculated by using a large risk pool of people and time

Therefore, option B is correct.

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The ______ is most commonly found in nature
parental
recessive trait
wild-type trait
dominant trait

Answers

In nature, the wild-type feature is more frequently encountered.

What exactly is a dominant trait?

Dominance is the phenomena in genetics where one allele (variant) of a gene on one copy of a chromosome obscures or overrides the impact of another allele (variant) of the same genes on the opposite copy of the chromosome. Dominant refers to the first variety, and recessive to the second. A change in one of the genes, either spontaneous (de novo) or inherited, is what initially causes this condition of having two distinct forms of the same gene on each chromosome. Genetic mutations on non-sex chromosomes (autosomes) and their accompanying features are referred to as autosomal dominant or autosomal weak, whereas those on sex chromosomes (allosomes) are referred to as Cross dominant, X-linked recessive, or Y-linked.

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